All India Institute of Medical Science (AIIMS) Delhi Staff Nurse Question Paper & Answer Keys 2016 Download
AIIMS Delhi Staff Nurse Question Paper 2016
Q.1) APGAR score 9 means the newborn is
(A) Normal
(B) Distressed
(C) Cyanotic
(D) Hypoxic
Correct Answer: Normal
Q.2) Dextrane is added to collected blood
(A) To prevent coagulation
(B) To prolong the RBC life
(C) To maintain normal pH
(D) To promote the growth of microorganism
Correct Answer: To prevent coagulation
Q.3) Which among the following vaccine is stored in the freezer compartment
(A) TT
(B) DPT
(C) Measles
(D) Typhoid
Correct Answer: Measles
Q.4) Urinary tract infection associated with indwelling urinary catheter is called as
(A) latrogenic infection
(B) Nosocomial infection
(C) Opportunistic infection
(D) Super infection
Correct Answer: latrogenic infection
Q.5) An antenatal mother with twin pregnancy for this time and already have one child This mother is
(A) G2P1
(B) G3P1
(C) G3P2
(D) G1P1
Correct Answer: G2P1
Q.6) During tonic clonic seizure priority nursing intervention is
(A) Prevent injury
(B) Restrain the patient
(C) Maintain patent airway
(D) Administer oxygen
Correct Answer: Maintain patent airway
Q.7) During eclampsic attack priority nursing intervention is
(A) Administer MgSO4 intravenously
(B) Maintain patent airway
(C) Administer oxygen
(D) Restrain the patient
Correct Answer: Maintain patent airway
Q.8) Decannulation means
(A) Removal of tracheostomy tube
(B) Removal of I/V cannula
(C) Removal of NG tube
(D) Removal of ET tube
Correct Answer: Removal of tracheostomy tube
Q.9) Rice water stool is the characteristic of
(A) Cholera
(B) Malaria
(C) Chicken guniya
(D) Yellow fever
Correct Answer: Cholera
Q.10) Purulent discharge color is
(A) Yellow
(B) Pinkish white
(C) Red
(D) Watery
Correct Answer: Yellow
Q.11) Enzyme immediately raised following MI is
(A) Troponin
(B) Myoglobin
(C) CK/MB
(D) Haemoglobin
Correct Answer: Myoglobin
Q.12) All the following are the methods to collect objective data, EXCEPT
(A) Interview
(B) Questionnaire
(C) Records
(D) Likert scale
Correct Answer: Interview
Q.13) What is the appropriate action if the subject want to withdraw from the research study?
(A) Subject can withdraw at any point of time
(B) If researcher permits then subject can withdraw
(C) If ethical committee permits then subject can withdraw
(D) Need to get permission from administrative authorities
Correct Answer: Subject can withdraw at any point of time
Q.14) A patient diagnosed with HIV refuses to disclose HIV status to his wife. Which among the following is the appropriate action for doctor?
(A) Keep the information as confidential
(B) Inform his wife secretly without his knowledge
(C) Inform his parents and instruct them don’t disclose it to his wife
(D) Counsel him and make him willing to disclose the information to wife
Correct Answer: Counsel him and make him willing to disclose the information to wife
Q.15) Gout is a condition occur because of the accumulation of
(A) Ammonia
(B) Creatinine
(C) Uric acid
(D) Bilirubin
Correct Answer: Uric acid
Q.16) Most preferred site of I/M injection in children is
(A) Gluteal muscle
(B) Deltoid
(C) Lateral aspect of mid-thigh
(D) Venterogluteal
Correct Answer: Lateral aspect of mid-thigh
Q.17) Among the following options identify the option which is indicating the toxicity of digoxin
(A) Visual disturbances
(B) Cramping
(C) Constipation
(D) Tinnitus
Correct Answer: Visual disturbances
Q.18) Patient felt chills and fever following blood transfusion. After stopping the transfusion what is the next nursing action?
(A) Administer NaCl
(B) Send tip of catheter for C/S
(C) Remove the cannula and apply pressure
(D) Administer antipyretics
Correct Answer: Administer NaCl
Q.19) Cervical dilation 2 cm and less than 2 contraction in 10 min in a pregnant mother. This mother belong to which among the following phase?
(A) Early phase of active labour
(B) Late phase of active labour
(C) Not in active phase
(D) Emergency phase
Correct Answer: Not in active phase
Q.20) Amniotomy is done because it
(A) Enhances effacement
(B) Decrease maternal BP
(C) To treat polyhydroamniosis
(D) To prolong the labour
Correct Answer: Enhances effacement
Q.21) Humanpappiloma virus is responsible for
(A) Cervical cancer
(B) Ovarian cancer
(C) Breast cancer
(D) Uterine cancer
Correct Answer: Cervical cancer
Q.22) Infected bandage is discarded in
(A) Yellow bag
(B) Black bag
(C) Blue bag
(D) Red bag
Correct Answer: Yellow bag
Q.23) Drug of choice to treat alcohol withdrawal symptom is
(A) Chlordiazepoxide
(B) Disulfuram
(C) Naloxone
(D) Naltrexone
Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Q.24) Alcohol is using in clinical setting for skin disinfection. This alcohol is made by mixing
(A) Isopropyl
(B) Methyl
(C) Ethyl
(D) Ethanol
Correct Answer: Isopropyl
Q.25) Concentrated NaOH spilled in your hand while you were in laboratory
(A) Your next action will be
(B) Washing part with acetic acid
(C) Washing part with water
(D) Apply bandage over the part
Correct Answer: Washing part with water
Q.26) All the following drugs are indicated in anaphylaxis reaction. EXCEPT
(A) Salicylate
(B) Adrenaline
(C) Corticosteroids
(D) Antidote
Correct Answer: Salicylate
Q.27) Epinephrine is not given in
(A) Asthma
(B) Cardiac attack
(C)Anaphylaxsis
(D) Hypersensitivity
Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity
Q.28) Early sign of post-operative shock can be assessed through
(A) Pulse rate
(B) Temperature
(C) Capillary refill time
(D) Pupillary reaction
Correct Answer: Pulse rate
Q.29) Following tonsillectomy nurse need to suspect haemorrhage
(A) Patient swallow frequently
(B) Haemoptysis
(C) Hematemesis
(D) Cool and calmy skin
Correct Answer: Patient swallow frequently
Q.30) Z track method is used while giving I/M injection because to
(A) Seal medication
(B) To reduce pain
(C) Easy administration
(D) Fast action
Correct Answer: Seal medication
Q.31) Drug of choice to treat malignant hypertension?
(A) Sodium nitroprusside
(B) Atenolol
(C) Amlodipine
(D) Nitro-glycerine
Correct Answer: Sodium nitroprusside
Q.32) Normal response to plantar reflex in adult is
(A) Extention
(B) Flexion
(C) Babinski response
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: Flexion
Q.33) Cleaning of eyes has to be done from
(A) Outer to inner canthus
(B) Inner to outer canthus
(C) Upper to lower
(D) Lower to upper
Correct Answer: Inner to outer canthus
Q.34) Dry cornea occurs because of the deficiency of
(A) Vitamin B12
(B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin B1
(D) Vitamin C
Correct Answer: Vitamin A
Q.35) Normal range of population covered by PHC in plain are
(A) 15,000
(B) 30,000
(C) 40,000
(D) 50,000
Correct Answer: 30,000
Q.36) Full form of ASHA is
(A) Accredited Social Health Activist
(B) Accredited Social Health Assistant
(C) Assistant Social Health Activist
(D) Accredited Senior Health Assistant
Correct Answer: Accredited Social Health Activist
Q.37) ASHA is not posted in
(A) Village level
(B) Sub-centre
(C) Multispecialty hospital
(D) PHC
Correct Answer: Multispecialty hospital
Q.38) Electrolyte need to be replaced in diabetic ketoacidosis is
(A) Calcium
(B) Magnisium
(C) Sodium
(D) Potassium
Correct Answer: Sodium
Q.39) Which among the following electrolyte is lethal in impaired renal function
(A) Sodium
(B) Potassium
(C) Calcium
(D) Magnesium
Correct Answer: Potassium
Q.40) Patient complains that someone is making conspiracy about me. Which type of delusion is it?
(A) Delusion of infidelity
(B) Delusion of nihilism
(C) Delusion of persecution
(D) Delusion of grandiosity
Correct Answer: Delusion of persecution
Q.41) Among the following which component is not present in human milk?
(A) Calcium
(B) Vitamin D
(C) IgA
(D) Folate
Correct Answer: Vitamin D
Q.42) Among the following types of hepatitis which is spread via feco-oral route?
(A) Hepatitis A
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Hepatitis C
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Q.43) Most common sign of osteoarthritis is
(A) Joint stiffness
(B) Weakness improved in the evening
(C) Pain
(D) Swelling
Correct Answer: Joint stiffness
Q.44) Early symptom of myasthenia gravis is
(A) Ptosis
(B) Respiratory difficulty
(C) Weakness improving in the evening
(D) Tremors
Correct Answer: Ptosis
Q.45) Early symptom of hypoglycaemia is.
(A) Diaphoresis
(B) Syncope
(C) Vomiting
(D) Headache
Correct Answer: Diaphoresis
Q.46) Most frequent complication of peritoneal dialysis
(A) Loose catheter
(B) Hernia
(C) Peritonitis
(D) Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: Peritonitis
Q.47) Sign indicating VP shunt dysfunction is
(A) Tensed fontanalle
(B) Crying
(C) Feeding difficulty
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: All the above
Q.48) Following head injury which among the following is the alarming symptom?
(A) Discharge from ear
(B) Tachypnea
(C) Tachycardia
(D) Reacting pupils
Correct Answer: Discharge from ear
Q.49) GBS is characterized by
(A) Ascending weakness
(B) Tremors
(C) Tingling
(D) Ptosis
Correct Answer: Ascending weakness
Q.50) While caring for a terminally ill cancer patient the priority nursing intervention is
(A) Reduce pain
(B) Maintain a patent airway
(C) Support the family members
(D) Administer medications
Correct Answer: Reduce pain
Q.51) Which among the following is the wrong match regards scoring of Glasgow Coma Scale
(A) Eye opening – 6 points
(B) Verbal response – 3 points
(C) Motor repsonse – 2 points
(D) Verbal response – 4 points
Correct Answer: Eye opening – 6 points
Q.52) All the following mile stones are present in a five months old child, EXCEPT
(A) Social smile
(B) Cooing
(C) Sitting up straight
(D) Head support
Correct Answer: Sitting up straight
Q.53) Which of the following is a sign of severe dehydration in infant?
(A) Sunken fontanels
(B) Warm skin
(C) Moist tongue
(D) Decreased tears
Correct Answer: Sunken fontanels
Q.54) Lasix act on
(A) Loop of henle
(B) Proximal convoluted tubules
(C) Distal convoluted tubules
(D) Collecting duct
Correct Answer: Loop of henle
Q.55) Patient want to get LAMA what is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
(A) Don’t allow the patient to go
(B) Restraint the patient until doctor comes
(C) Sign all the necessary document and provide LAMA
(D) Inform the physician
Correct Answer: Inform the physician
Q.56) Which among the following position is used to assess the inguinal hernia?
(A) Sit down and bear down
(B) Weight lift
(C) Lithotomy
(D) Standing
Correct Answer: Sit down and bear down
Q.57) Bitot spots and xerophthalmia is due to the deficiency of
(A) Vit A
(B) Vit D
(C) Vlit E
(D) Vit K
Correct Answer: Vit A
Q.58) Position used in sigmoidoscopy is
(A) Knee chest position
(B) Supine
(C) Lithotomy
(D) Fowlers
Correct Answer: Knee chest position
Q.59) In BSE position used is
(A) One hand under the head
(B) One hand close to the mid line of the body
(C) Sitting position with arm on the lap
(D) Supine with arm on the chest
Correct Answer: One hand under the head
Q.60) Immunoglobulin responsible for allergic reaction is
(A) IgE
(B) IgA
(C) IgM
(D) IgG
Correct Answer: IgE
Q.61) Bow leg and wide wrist are the characteristic of
(A) Rickets
(B) Osteomalacia
(C) Polio
(D) CDH
Correct Answer: Rickets
Q.62) T cell mature in
(A) Thymus
(B) Tonsil
(C) Thyroid
(D) Tympanic membrane
Correct Answer: Thymus
Q.63) One nurse is responsible for complete care of the patient. It is known as
(A) Primary nurse
(B) Functional nurse
(C) Duty nurse
(D) In charge nurse
Correct Answer: Primary nurse
Q.64) Which among the following solution is hypotonic
(A) 0.45% NS
(B) 0.95 NS
(C) 3% NS
(D) 5%D
Correct Answer: 0.45% NS
Q.65) In TURP solution used for irrigation is
(A) Glycerol
(B) NS
(C) Sterile water
(D) RL
Correct Answer: Glycerol
Q.66) Among the following which is the largest burn?
(A) Anterior upper chest
(B) Face and neck
(C) Right leg
(D) Left arm
Correct Answer: Right leg
Q.67) All are STD except
(A) Gonorrhoea
(B) Hepatitis A
(C) AIDS
(D) Syphilis
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Q.68) Malaria is caused by
(A) Bacteria
(B) Virus
(C) Fungi
(D) Protozoa
Correct Answer: Protozoa
Q.69) Autoclaving done at a pressure of
(A) 10 psi (pound per square inch)
(B) 15 psi
(C) 20 psi
(D) 25 psi
Correct Answer: 15 psi
Q.70) Accumulation of bile salt cause
(A) Pruritis
(B) Constipation
(C) Gout
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: Pruritis
Q.71) Normal prothrombin time?
(A) 8 to 10 seconds
(B) 11 to 13.5 seconds
(C) 12.5 to 15 seconds
(D) 15 to 30 seconds
Correct Answer: 11 to 13.5 seconds
Q.72) Betibacahvobetipadao program started in which state of India?
(A) Haryana
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
Correct Answer: Haryana
Q.73) A restrained patient said to the nurse that his behaviour is under control and now you can remove the restraints. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
(A) Remove patient’s restraint
(B) Remove restraints from one hand
(C) Wait for doctors to come
(D) Don’t do anything
Correct Answer: Wait for doctors to come
Q.74) Triage means
(A) To sort
(B) To arrange
(C) To communicate
(D) To allocate
Correct Answer: To sort
Q.75) Maximum infectivity of mumps is during
(A) Prodromal
(B) Incubation
(C) After appearing the swelling
(D) After disappearing the swelling
Correct Answer: Prodromal
Q.76) Maximum infectivity of chickenpox during
(A) 6 days before appearing vesicles
(B) 6 days after appearing vesicles
(C) 2 weeks after appearing vesicles
(D) 2 weeks after disappearing vesicles
Correct Answer: 6 days before appearing vesicles
Q.77) Decreased bone density is called as
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Osteomalacia
(C) Osteoarthritis
(D) Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Osteoporosis
Q.78) Alcohol patient blame his family members for his behaviour. This is known as
(A) Projection
(B) Regression
(C) Suppression
(D) Denial
Correct Answer: Projection
Q.79) Patient with 0+ blood wait for transfusion. But in the blood bank following blood groups are available. Which is the most appropriate one for the patient?
(A) O
(B) A+
(C) AB+
(D) Any blood group
Correct Answer: O
Q.80) Making arrangements for any item at any point in time to avoid the hindrances in patient care is called as
(A) Inventory
(B) Supervision
(C) Staffing
(D) Leadership
Correct Answer: Inventory
AIIMS Delhi Staff Nurse 2016 Question Paper & Answer Keys Download