ESIC Nursing Officer Question Paper & Answer Key 2019 Shift-II

ESIC Nursing Officer Question Paper & Answer Key 2019 Shift-II

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Q.1. The size of which part of the eye contributes to controlling the amount of light entering the eye.

  1. Pupil
  2. Lens
  3. Optic disc
  4. Macula lutea


Correct Answer: Pupil



Q.2. Which of the following is not a typical difference factor between benign and malignant tumors?

  1. Growth rate
  2. Encapsulation
  3. Cell differentiation
  4. Size of the tumor

Correct Answer: Size of the tumor



Q 3. Aganglionic disease of the intestinal tract which causes inadequate motility is termed as:

  1. Ulcerative colitis
  2. Crohn’s disease
  3. Hirschsprung’s disease
  4. Diverticular disease

Correct Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease





Q 4. Eclampsia is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

  1. Seizures
  2. Mild facial edema
  3. BP greater than 160/110 Hg
  4. Marked proteinuria

Correct Answer: Mild facial edema




Q 5. When assessing physical development of the five years old you would find it abnormal if he

  1. Needed to go up a stairway one step at a time
  2. Could catch a large rubber ball
  3. Could stack up pile of six blocks
  4. Cold jumps on one foot a few times

Correct Answer: Needed to go up a stairway one step at a time




Q 6. Vital statistics include the following EXCEPT

  1. Life expectancy
  2. Birth rate
  3. Education rate
  4. Morbidity and mortality statistics

Correct Answer: Education rate




Q7. To properly stage a pressure ulcer:

  1. The patient must be supine
  2. The skin must be completely dry
  3. Natural light must be used
  4. Eschar must be removed

Correct Answer: Eschar must be removed




Q.8. The inflammatory/exudative phase of wound healing will  last for

  1. 1 year
  2. 21 days to a month
  3. 1-4 days
  4. 5-20 days

Correct Answer: 1-4 days




Q.9. In Erickson’s theory, adolescent develops a sense of

  1. Initiative
  2. Intellect
  3. Identity
  4. Industry

Correct Answer: Identity




Q.10. The bacteria that retain the stain in Gram’s method of staining is a:

  1. Gram positive bacteria
  2. Spores of bacteria
  3. Broad spectrum bacteria
  4. Gram negative bacteria

Correct Answer: Gram positive bacteria




Q.11. When considering the principle of growth and development remember that

  1. Although development occurs in an orderly sequence, the rate may very between individuals
  2. Most children can run before they walk
  3. Development occurs evenly, with periods of no growth occurring every third year
  4. All children should grow in the same rate, all four years old should weight within 4 kg of each other

Correct Answer: Although development occurs in an orderly sequence, the rate may very between individuals




Q.12. Secondary prevention is:

  1. Safe water supply, Vector and animal reservoir control
  2. Early detection (diagnosis) of disease & Prompt treatment
  3. Good living and working condition
  4. Nutritional counseling

Correct Answer: Early detection (diagnosis) of disease & Prompt treatment




Q.13. The reflex action of the toes in indicative of abnormalities in the motor control pathway leading from cerebral cortex.

  1. Romberg test
  2. Patellar reflex
  3. Babinski reflex
  4. Achilles reflex

Correct Answer: Babinski reflex




Q.14. Nurse use the nursing process as a method of:

  1. Planning organizing and delivering patient care
  2. Communicating with patients and families
  3. Meeting the legal requirements and standards in nursing
  4. Meeting public expectations of nurse

Correct Answer: Planning organizing and delivering patient care



Q.15. Which of the following would not promote trust in the nurse patient relationship?

  1. Examining a wound without providing privacy
  2. Fulfilling promises
  3. Returning at the stated time
  4. Maintaining confidentiality

Correct Answer: Examining a wound without providing privacy



Q.16. Which of the following is the most abundant type of blood  cells?

  1. Monocyte
  2. Erythrocyte
  3. Lymphocyte
  4. Thrombocyte

Correct Answer: Erythrocyte




Q.17. “Para” is defined as:

  1. Total number of pregnancies
  2. Born from beginning of 38 to 42 weeks
  3. Any pregnancy terminates before the period of viability
  4. Number of past pregnancies gone beyond period of viability

Correct Answer: Number of past pregnancies gone beyond period of viability



Q.18. Role of community nurse in school Health program, EXCEPT

  1. Assist In school medical examination and follow up
  2. Assist in screening physical mental and other special examination of children in school
  3. Assist in communicable disease control
  4. To provide immunization to the children

Correct Answer: To provide immunization to the children




Q.19. A significant predictor of fetal well-being is, if fetal heart rate is:

  1. 100-120 beats/min
  2. 180-200 beats/min
  3. 120-160 beats/min
  4. 160-200 beats/min

Correct Answer: 120-160 beats/min




Q.20. The major nutrients involved in fluid balance are

  1. Vitamin B9 and magnesium
  2. Fats and proteins
  3. Chloride and carbohydrates
  4. Potassium and sodium

Correct Answer: Potassium and sodium


Q.21. Cerclage (encircling cervix with suture) is done for patients  with

  1. Complete abortion
  2. Incomplete abortion
  3. Threatened abortion
  4. Incompetent cervix

Correct Answer: Incompetent cervix




Q.22. Bipolar disorders are treated with the following medication  EXCEPT

  1. Carbamazepine
  2. Valproic acid
  3. Amphetamine
  4. Lithium

Correct Answer: Amphetamine




Q.23. Rh Negative mother should receive ___globulin

  1. RhO (M) globulin
  2. RhO (D) immunoglobulin
  3. Lecithin/Sphingomyelin
  4. Acetylcholinesterase

Correct Answer: Acetylcholinesterase




Q.24. Complete dilation of cervix to birth of a baby is staged as:

  1. Stage 4 of labor
  2. Stage 3 of labor
  3. Stage 1 of labor
  4. Stage 2 of labor

Correct Answer: Stage 2 of labor




Q.25. Bulging sack like lesion filled with spinal fluid and spinal ord element is:

  1. Hydrocephalus
  2. Myelomeningocele
  3. Meningocele
  4. Spinal bifida occulta

Correct Answer: Myelomeningocele





Q.26. The following are presenting symptoms of patient with catatonic schizophrenia EXCEPT

  1. Sudden onset of mutism
  2. Have dangerous periods of agitation and explosive behavior
  3. Disorganized behavior and speech
  4. Stereotyped position with waxy flexibility

Correct Answer: Disorganized behavior and speech




Q.27. The brain region which is responsible for coordination of  voluntary muscular movement posture and balance.

  1. Medulla Oblongata
  2. Cerebral cortex
  3. Spinal cord
  4. Cerebellum

Correct Answer: Cerebellum




Q.28. The complications for ventricular septal defect are all of the following, Except

  1. Pulmonary hypertension
  2. Cerebral palsy
  3. Endocarditis
  4. Heart failure

Correct Answer: Cerebral palsy




Q.29. The main clinical manifestations of pulmonary edema are as follows, EXCEPT

  1. Cyanosis
  2. Caught with expectoration
  3. Hypotension
  4. Dyspnea

Correct Answer: Hypotension




Q.30. Principles of ethical practice includes the following, EXCEPT

  1. Maleficence
  2. Justice
  3. Beneficence
  4. Respect for autonomy

Correct Answer: Maleficence




Q.31. The patient with appendicitis usually exhibits the following clinical manifestations.

  1. Rebound tenderness at the McBurney’s Point
  2. Pain occurs immediately after eating
  3. Heartburn regurgitation and dysphagia
  4. Hematemesis or melena

Correct Answer: Rebound tenderness at the McBurney’s Point




Q.32. To encourage an infant’s cognitive and psychosocial development parents and other caregivers should

  1. Allow the baby to play alone several hours each day
  2. Firmly explain the rules of acceptable behavior
  3. Give loving consistent care, including playing
  4. Keep the baby with them at all times so he or she is safe

Correct Answer: Give loving consistent care, including playing



Q.33. Alcohol withdrawal symptoms are as follows, EXCEPT

  1. Anxiety and insomnia
  2. Euphoria
  3. Tremor
  4. Hallucinations

Correct Answer: Euphoria




Q.34. The level of care which is oriented towards the promotion and maintenance of health, the prevention of Community disease, the management of common episodic disease and the monitoring of stable or chronic conditions:

  1. Primary care Level
  2. Secondary care level
  3. Advanced care level
  4. Tertiary care level

Correct Answer: Primary care Level




Q.35. Mantoux Test (Purified Protein Derivative) is significantly positive when the erythema measures.

  1. 5 mm-10 mm
  2. 10 mm-14.9 mm
  3. 15 mm or greater
  4. 3.5 mm -9.9 mm

Correct Answer: 15 mm or greater



Q.36. Repetitive, uncontrollable thoughts and acts (E.g. Rituals, rigidity, inflexibility) is termed as: (MHN)

  1. Ritualistic behavior
  2. Phobias
  3. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
  4. Apprehension

Correct Answer: Obsessive Compulsive Disorder




Q.37. In what ways could hepatitis A virus be spread in if one of the kitchen employees is in the reservoir:

  1. While he speaks and sneezes, through droplet route
  2. Oral-fecal route, through his hands
  3. If he sustains a cut through blood borne
  4. While he coughs out through air borne route


Correct Answer: Oral-fecal route, through his hands




Q.38. Tumors within Sella turcica and small adenomas of the pituitary glands can be removed through

  1. Infratentorial approach
  2. Transsphenoidal approach
  3. Supratentorial approach
  4. Craniotomy

Correct Answer: Transsphenoidal approach



Q.39. Patient complains of pain and has redness with swelling at the site of IV. The nurse must

  1. Stop infusion and remove IV cannula
  2. Start nasal oxygen
  3. Change IV tubing and the solution
  4. Apply warm moist pack to the reddened area

Correct Answer: Stop infusion and remove IV cannula



Q.40. The commonest drug which is administered during an anaphylactic reaction

  1. Diuretic
  2. Injection Epinephrine
  3. Antibiotic
  4. Anticonvulsant

Correct Answer: Injection Epinephrine




Q.41. Potential adverse effects of surgery and anesthesia are as follows, EXCEPT

  1. Thrombosis from compression of blood vessels or stasis
  2. Malignant hyperthermia/hypothermia
  3. Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance
  4. Myocardial depression, bradycardia, circulatory collapse

Correct Answer: Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance




  1. 42. The extracellular fluid includes the following EXCEPT
  2. Cerebrospinal fluid and fluid in the interstitial spaces
  3. Fluid within the cells
  4. Blood, plasma and lymph
  5. Synovial fluid, pericardial fluid, and pleural fluid

Correct Answer: Fluid within the cells



Q.43. The most common method of microorganism transfer from one person to another in the hospital setting is prevented by

  1. Disinfecting instruments in special solutions
  2. Changing bed linen daily
  3. Washing hands thoroughly and frequently
  4. Filtering air in the hospital

Correct Answer: Washing hands thoroughly and frequently




Q.44. Wearing seat belts, safety helmets and other safety equipment’s are example for:

  1. Primary health promotion behavior
  2. Holistic health care model
  3. Secondary health promotion behavior
  4. Tertiary health promotion behavior

Correct Answer: Primary health promotion behavior



Q.45. Considering the chain of infection, a reservoir might be

  1. A contaminated water supply
  2. An uninfected patient
  3. Staphylococcus bacteria
  4. A tick carrying Lyme disease

Correct Answer: A contaminated water supply



Q46. The nurse is assigned to a patient who has a bacterial pneumonia and is under droplet precautions, which personal protective equipment (PPE) will she wear to deliver the meal tray?

  1. No PPE required
  2. Only mask is needed
  3. Special filtration mask and gloves
  4. Gown mask gloves shoe covers

Correct Answer: Only mask is needed



Q.47. The Three Features of a Community

  1. Physical-Mental-Social
  2. Primary, Secondary and tertiary
  3. Locations, population and social system
  4. Agent-Host-environment

Correct Answer: Locations, population and social system



Q.48. The characteristics of lochia rubra is:

  1. Foul odor
  2. Pink/brown with flesh odor
  3. Bloody with fishy odor
  4. Yellow-white

Correct Answer: Bloody with fishy odor




Q.49. Positive-definite sign of pregnancy is:

  1. Visualization of fetus by ultrasound
  2. Uterine enlargement
  3. Amenorrhea
  4. Quickening

Correct Answer: Visualization of fetus by ultrasound



Q.50. The key instruction to be given to the patient and the caregiver with epilepsy is as follows, EXCEPT

  1. Take medications daily
  2. Maintain medication and seizure chart
  3. Avoid alcohol, smoking, hypoglycemia
  4. Take showers in bathtubs

Correct Answer: Take showers in bathtubs




Q.51. The amount of air passing into and out of the lungs during each cycle of breathing is referred as:

  1. Tidal volume
  2. Total lung capacity
  3. Residual volume
  4. Vital capacity

Correct Answer: Tidal volume




Q.52. In rheumatoid arthritis, during the acute phase the values which are significant are

  1. ESR and C reactive Protein (CRP) elevation
  2. RFT elevation (renal Function Test)
  3. CBC elevation (Complete Blood Count)
  4. LFT elevation (Liver Function Test)

Correct Answer: ESR and C reactive Protein (CRP) elevation



Q.53. Progressive thinning and shortening of cervix are defined as:

  1. Expulsion
  2. Effacement
  3. Dilation
  4. Contraction

Correct Answer: Effacement



Q.54. Philosophy of Primary Health Care are as follows EXCEPT

  1. Equity and justice
  2. Inter-sectoral approach
  3. Primary prevention
  4. Inter-relationship of health and development

Correct Answer: Primary prevention



Q.55. The normal levels of sodium in plasma is

  1. 135-143 mEq/L
  2. 97-106 mEq/L
  3. 90-196 mg/100 ml
  4. 60-100 mg/dl

Correct Answer: 135-143 mEq/L



Q.56. Compression of facial nerve in the temporal bone will lead to

  1. Gullian-Barre syndrome
  2. Meningocele
  3. Multiple sclerosis
  4. Bell’s palsy

Correct Answer: Bell’s palsy



Q.57. Inborn errors of metabolism are the following, EXCEPT

  1. Cystic fibrosis
  2. Tay-Sachs disease
  3. Phenylketonuria
  4. Turner’s syndrome

Previous Year Papers 1059

Correct Answer: Turner’s syndrome



Q.58. The most significant characteristics experienced by a patient with depression is:

  1. Aggressive, abusive or violent behavior
  2. Hypervigilance and nightmares
  3. Lack of impulse control
  4. Depressed mood and loss of pleasure or interest

Correct Answer: Depressed mood and loss of pleasure or interest



Q.59. The elderly individual is at greater risk for dehydration than the middle-aged adult because_

  1. The elderly has more muscle mass
  2. The elderly drink little fluid
  3. Compensatory mechanism works less efficiently
  4. Their bodies are almost 80% water

Correct Answer: Compensatory mechanism works less efficiently




Q.60. False labor manifestation are as follows, EXCEPT

  1. Contraction lessen with activity or rest
  2. Cervix progressively effaced and dilated
  3. Abdominal discomfort
  4. Contractions irregular

Correct Answer: Cervix progressively effaced and dilated




Q.61. The following are the important preoperative nursing care for a patient with benign prostatic hypertrophy, EXCEPT

  1. Hormonal therapy
  2. Assure nutrition and correct fluid and electrolyte balance
  3. Promoting urinary drainage
  4. Acid-ash diet to treat infection

Correct Answer: Hormonal therapy




Q.62. The person who becomes short of breath with little exertion, such as when eating a meal, has what kind of respiratory problem?

  1. Cheyne-strokes respiration
  2. Dyspnea
  3. Hyperventilation
  4. Stridor

Correct Answer: Dyspnea




Q.63. Reye’s syndrome is associated with

  1. Hemolytic transfusion reactions
  2. Biliary colic
  3. Sickle cell crisis
  4. Use of aspirin with viral illness

Correct Answer: Use of aspirin with viral illness




Q.64. APGAR score is considered excellent if the score is

  1. 4-6
  2. 3-7
  3. 0-3
  4. 7-10

Correct Answer: 7-10



Q.65. One cardiac cycle completes in_______

  1. 0.57 second
  2. 0.9 seconds
  3. 0.8 seconds
  4. 0.1 seconds

Correct Answer: 0.8 seconds




Q.66. Phototherapy is indicated for children with

  1. Hemolytic disease
  2. Necrotizing enterocolitis
  3. Hypoglycemia
  4. Hyperbilirubinemia

Correct Answer: Hyperbilirubinemia




Q.67. Artificially acquired immunity is obtained by

  1. Recovering from a disease
  2. Exposure to a disease
  3. Being breast fed
  4. Immunization with antibody response



Correct Answer: Immunization with antibody response




Q.68. The drug of choice to treat Bulimia nervosa is

  1. Benzodiazepines
  2. Antidepressants (E.g. SSRI)
  3. Thiamine IV
  4. IV Glucose 10%

Correct Answer: Antidepressants (E.g. SSRI)




Q.69. Behavioral clues of impending suicide are as follows, EXCEPT

  1. Gives away valuable possessions
  2. Becomes energetic after a period of server depression
  3. Withdraws from social activities and plans
  4. Hypervigilance and exaggerated startle response

Correct Answer: Hypervigilance and exaggerated startle response




Q.70. Currant jelly like stools containing and mucus among 3 months to 3 years old child is suspected to have.

  1. Hirschsprung’s disease
  2. Abdominal hernia
  3. Meckel’s diverticulum
  4. Intussusception

Correct Answer: Intussusception




Q.71. The traditional sources-oriented narrative type of charting is characterized by all of the following forms, EXCEPT the

  1. Database form
  2. Doctor’s progress sheet
  3. Laboratory sheet
  4. History and physical examination form

Correct Answer: Laboratory sheet




Q.72. All elderly tends to be more susceptible to infection because of:

  1. Increased exposure of pathogens
  2. A decline in immune function
  3. Poor nutritional status
  4. Lack of exercises

Correct Answer: A decline in immune function



Q.73. Responses to avoid in therapeutic communications are as follows, EXCEPT:

  1. Advice giving
  2. Closed-ended questions
  3. Reflecting and clarifying
  4. Arguing and judgmental responses

Correct Answer: Reflecting and clarifying




Q.74. The classical substances that increasing the sensitivity of pain receptors by enhancing the pain-provoking effect of bradykinin is

  1. Nociceptor
  2. Encephalin
  3. Endorphins
  4. Prostaglandins

Correct Answer: Prostaglandins



Q.75. HbA1C indicates post serum glucose levels over previous

  1. 2 months period
  2. 1-month period
  3. 3 months period
  4. 6 months period

Correct Answer: 3 months period



Q.76. Standard precaution requires the use of protective eye wear when

  1. Caring for a patient with cough
  2. When a wound is oozing blood
  3. Invasive procedures are performed
  4. There is a danger of body fluids splashing

Correct Answer:  There is a danger of body fluids splashing



Q.77. When a pulse rate is irregular, it is best to count the

  1. Radial pulse for a full minute
  2. Apical pulse for a full minute
  3. Apical pulse for 30 seconds
  4. Radial pulse for 30 seconds.

Correct Answer: Apical pulse for a full minute



Q.78. Gestational diabetes increases risk for the following, EXCEPT

  1. Prematurity and still birth
  2. Congenital anomalies
  3. Small for date fetus
  4. Macrosomia

Correct Answer: Small for date fetus



Q.79. In the liver bacteria that found their way into portal circulation is destroyed by

  1. Cilia
  2. Hydrochloric acid
  3. Leukocytosis
  4. Kupffer cells

Correct Answer: Kupffer cells




Q.80. Example for autosomal recessive inheritance_

  1. Craniofacial disorders
  2. Hemophilia
  3. Cystic fibrosis
  4. Skeletal disorders

Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis



Q.81. Medical asepsis differs from surgical asepsis in that it is aimed at:

  1. Preventing transmission of microorganisms
  2. Preventing entry of microorganisms into the body
  3. Sterilizing all equipment
  4. Killing all microorganisms

Correct Answer: Preventing transmission of microorganisms



Q.82. Preterm labor is when it occurs between

  1. 32-36 weeks of gestation
  2. 20-37 weeks of gestation
  3. 24-30 weeks of gestation
  4. 16-20 weeks of gestation

Correct Answer: 20-37 weeks of gestation



Q.83. Approach to health is that acknowledges and respect the interaction of a person’s mind body and spirit within the environment is termed as:

  1. Holistic Health Model
  2. Health Belief Model
  3. High-Level Wellness Model
  4. Clinical Model

Correct Answer: Holistic Health Model



Q.84. The main cause of genital warts (CondylomataAcuminata) is

  1. Neisseria gonorrhea
  2. Pelvic inflammatory disease
  3. Human papilloma virus (HPV)
  4. Herpes simplex virus

Correct Answer: Human papilloma virus (HPV)




Q.85. The cleft palate usually gets repaired during

  1. 6 months
  2. 3 months
  3. 12-18 months
  4. 2-3 years

Correct Answer: 12-18 months




Q.86. What would be the next number in the series: 2,6,18,54,?

  1. 152
  2. 162
  3. 108
  4. 181

Correct Answer: 162



Q.87. The sides of a triangle are 7 cm, 5 cm, 3 cm. Then the largest  angle of the triangle is:

  1. 60°
  2. 120°
  3. 45°
  4. 90°

Correct Answer: 120°



Q.88. Two pole of equal heights are standing opposite each other on side of the road. Which is 40 m wide. From a point between them on the road the angles of elevation of the top of the poles are 60° and 30° respectively. Then the heights of the pole is:

  1. 10/3 m
  2. 20√3 m
  3. 15 m
  4. 10/3 m

Correct Answer: 10/3 m



Q.89. The value of 1-tan2 45°equals:

             1+tan2 45°

  1. 0
  2. Sin 45°
  3. 1
  4. tan 90°

Correct Answer: 0



Q.90. A number consists of two digits. The digit in ten’s place exceeds the digit in the unit’s place by 2 The sum of the digits is of the number. Then the number is: 6

  1. 54
  2. 64
  3. 46
  4. 108

Correct Answer: 54


Q.91. The total amount invested by three persons A, B and C is * 1290 so that A’s share is 3 times B’s and B’s share is 7 times c’s Then the share of C is                                                            2


  1. 520
  2. 240
  3. 320
  4. 630

Correct Answer: b. 240


Q.92. The height of a right circular cylinder is 14 cm and its curved surface is 704 Sq. cm. Then its volume is given by:

  1. 5632 cm3
  2. 9856 cm3
  3. 2816 cm3
  4. 1408 cm3

Correct Answer: 2816 cm3


Q.93. Chilika lake is located in which state?

  1. Jharkhand
  2. West Bengal
  3. Assam
  4. Odisha

Correct Answer: Odisha



Q.94. Which country hosted 2018 FIFA world cup?

  1. Japan
  2. Russia
  3. China
  4. Qatar

Correct Answer: Russia



Q.95. Who is the writer of “wide angle”?

  1. Rahul Dravid
  2. Anil Kumble
  3. Shane Warne
  4. Shoaib Akhtar

Correct Answer: Anil Kumble





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