AIIMS Patna NO Question Paper & Answer Key 2020

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Q.1. The apex of the heart is formed mostly by the:

  1. Left ventricle
  2. Right atrium
  3. Left atrium
  4. Central ventricle

Correct Answer: Left ventricle

Q.2. Which of the following is the largest cranial nerve?

  1. Cranial VI
  2. Cranial nerve X
  3. Cranial nerve VII
  4. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)

Correct Answer: Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)

Q.3. Tarsals of the ankles are examples of which type of bone?

  1. Short bones
  2. Sesamoid bones
  3. Long bones
  4. Pneumatic bones

Correct Answer: Short bones

Q.4. How many bones are there in the lower extremities in a normal adult?

  1. 58
  2. 62
  3. 64
  4. 60

Correct Answer: 62


Q.5. What is the approximate maximum air volume in the lung for normal healthy adult?

  1. 2400 mL
  2. 300 mL
  3. 3000 mL
  4. 6000 mL

Correct Answer: 6000 mL

Q.6. Carpometacarpal joint is an example of which of the following types of joints?

  1. Hinge
  2. Ball and socket
  3. Pivot
  4. Saddle

Correct Answer: Saddle

Q.7. Which of the following layers of the adrenal gland secretes glucocorticoids?

  1. Adrenal medulla
  2. Zona glomerulosa
  3. Zona reticularis
  4. Zona fasciculata

Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata


Q.8. Which of the following is an example of ball-and-socket joints?

  1. Skull joint
  2. Thumb joint
  3. Hip joint
  4. Elbow joint

Correct Answer: Hip joint

Q.9. What is the synonym of Clotting Factor II?

  1. Christmas factor
  2. Fibrinogen
  3. Calcium
  4. Prothrombin

Correct Answer: Prothrombin


Q.10. Which of the following quadriceps femoris muscles help in flexion of the thigh?

  1. Rectus femoris
  2. Vastus medialis
  3. Vastus intermedius
  4. Vastus lateralis

Correct Answer: Rectus femoris


Q.11. Which of the following parts of the brain controls body temperature?

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Hippocampus
  3. Pons
  4. Amygdala

Correct Answer: Hypothalamus

Q.12. How many pairs of cervical nerves are there in the spinal cord?

  1. 5
  2. 9
  3. 8
  4. 12

Correct Answer: 8


Q.13. The elbow is an example of a …………….. Joint.

  1. Hinge
  2. Pivot
  3. Condyloid.
  4. Planar

Correct Answer: Hinge

Q.14. The expanded ends of a long bone are called:

  1. Tubercle
  2. Epicondyle
  3. Diaphysis
  4. Epiphyses

Correct Answer: Epiphyses


Q.15. The posterior pituitary consists mainly of ………………

  1. Beta cells
  2. C cells
  3. T cells
  4. Neuronal projections


Correct Answer: Neuronal projections

Q.16. Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted from the anterior pituitary?

  1. Adrenocorticotropic
  2. Prolactin
  3. Human growth hormone
  4. Oxytocin

Correct Answer: Oxytocin


Q.17. A ……………….. is a cell that manufactures and stores the protein keratin.

  1. Keraticellyte
  2. Keracyte
  3. Keratinocyte
  4. Keratolytic


Correct Answer: Keratinocyte

Q.18. Which of the following is an example of synarthrosis joint?

  1. Fibrous joints of the skull sutures
  2. Wrist joints
  3. Hip joints
  4. Elbow joint


Correct Answer: Fibrous joints of the skull sutures

Q.19. Which of the following hormones inhibits release of growth hormone?

  1. Dopamine
  2. Somatotropin
  3. Somatostatin
  4. Thyrotropin inhibiting hormone


Correct Answer: Somatostatin

Q.20. Oxytocin is mainly involved in which of the following functions?

  1. Motor skills
  2. Childbirth and lactation
  3. Growth and mental ability
  4. Regulation of blood pressure

Correct Answer: Childbirth and lactation


Q.21. Which of the following is NOT related to MMR vaccine?

  1. Rubella
  2. Measles
  3. Rickets
  4. Mumps


Correct Answer: Rickets

Q.22. Who among the following devised the autoclave used for sterilization?

  1. Charles Chamberland
  2. Robert Koch
  3. Edward Jenner
  4. Anton van Leeuwenhoek


Correct Answer: Charles Chamberland

Q.23. Widal, a serological test, is used to detect the presence of which of the following pathogenic microorganisms?

  1. E. coli
  2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  3. Haemophilus influenzae
  4. Salmonella typhi


Correct Answer: Salmonella typhi

Q.24. The causative agent of Lyme disease is:

  1. Rickettsia prowazekii
  2. Alphavirus.
  3. Borrelia burgdorferi
  4. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi


Q.25. Which of the following microorganisms causes gonorrhea?

  1. Stylus gonorrhoeae
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. Stereotyoist gonorrhoeae
  4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Q.26. What is the optimum temperature in an autoclave to achieve sterility?

  1. 121°C for 30 minutes
  2. 60°C for 30 minutes
  3. 34°C for 30 minutes
  4. 27°C for 20 minutes

Correct Answer: 121°C for 30 minutes


Q.27. Which of the following involves the introduction of antibodies into the body from an animal or person already immune to the disease?

  1. Active immunity
  2. Artificially acquired passive immunity
  3. Naturally acquired passive immunity
  4. Innate immunity


Correct Answer: Artificially acquired passive immunity

Q.28. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by:

  1. IgG
  2. IgE
  3. IgM
  4. IgA

Correct Answer: IgE

Q.29. Rod-shaped bacteria are called:

  1. Cocci
  2. Clusters
  3. Bacillus
  4. Spirochetes


Correct Answer: Bacillus

Q.30. Which of the following is true about IgM?

  1. It is not produced by vertebrates.
  2. It forms the initial immune response.
  3. It is not an isotypes of antibody.
  4. It is the smallest antibody.


Correct Answer: It forms the initial immune response.


Q.31. As per 2011 census survey, ………….  per cent of the population of India suffer from disability (in the identified 8 categories).

  1. 2.21
  2. 1.2
  3. 2.5
  4. 3.1

Correct Answer: 2.21


Q.32. Who is considered as the father of sociology?

  1. Auguste Comte
  2. Maclver
  3. Emile Durkheim
  4. Kingsley Davis


Correct Answer: Auguste Comte

Q.33. Which of the following is NOT a stage of socialization?

  1. Oral stage
  2. Despair stage
  3. Oedipal stage
  4. Latency stage

Correct Answer: Despair stage

Q.34. Caste status is an example of which of the following status?

  1. Monetary
  2. Ascribed
  3. Achieved
  4. General

Correct Answer: Ascribed



Q.35. The general process of acquiring culture is referred to as:

  1. Dispersion.
  2. Diffusion
  3. Socialization
  4. Acculturation


Correct Answer: Socialization

Q.36. Socialization is a process involving:

  1. Declaring everything as belonging to society
  2. Setting up the social norms
  3. Inducting people to adapt in society
  4. Normalization of criminals and anti-social elements


Correct Answer: Inducting people to adapt in society

Q.37. Who said that man is a social animal?

  1. Maclver
  2. Auguste Comte
  3. Aristotle
  4. Ginsberg


Correct Answer: Aristotle

Q.38. Any small group marked by continuous close interaction of a highly personal and emotionally supportive nature is called a/an ……….. group.

  1. Reference
  2. Secondary
  3. Primary
  4. Interest


Correct Answer: Primary

Q.39. Polyandry me:

  1. A form of marriage that joins one female with more than one male
  2. A form of marriage that joins one male with more than one female
  3. A form of marriage that joins one female with one male
  4. Getting married in the same blood group


Correct Answer: A form of marriage that joins one female with more than one male

Q.40. Providing education to the school, college and street children on prevention of drug addiction is an example of ……. prevention.

  1. Primordial
  2. Tertiary
  3. Primary
  4. Secondary


Correct Answer: Primordial


Q.41. Lack of oxygen in the blood stream is called:

  1. Hypoxaemia
  2. Cyanosis
  3. Hypoxia
  4. Anoxaemia

Correct Answer: Hypoxaemia

Q.42. Under normal circumstances, concentration of oxygen in inspired air is about ………. Percent.

  1. 100
  2. 6
  3. 29
  4. 21

Correct Answer: 21

Q.43. As per Kübler-Ross stages of grieving, refusing to believe that loss is happening/has happened is called:

  1. Bargaining
  2. Denial
  3. Acceptance
  4. Depression

Correct Answer: Denial

Q.44. Which of the following organ is one of the primary regulator of body fluid and electrolyte balance?

  1. Intestine
  2. Kidney
  3. Stomach
  4. Lungs

Correct Answer: Kidney



Q.45. What is the approximate normal level of haematocrit/packed cell volume in men?

  1. 5% to 15%
  2. 60% to 70%
  3. 40% to 50%
  4. 20% to 35%

Correct Answer: 40% to 50%

Q.46. Which of the following tests need to be performed before radial artery cannulation to evaluate radial and ulnar arterial patency?

  1. Coop’s test
  2. Allen’s test
  3. Capillary refill test
  4. Buerger’s test

Correct Answer: Allen’s test

Q.47. A group of symptoms is known as:

  1. Signs
  2. Syndrome
  3. Clinical manifestations
  4. Group symptoms

Correct Answer: Syndrome

Q.48. Rhythmic waxing and waning of respiration is called:

  1. Hypoventilation
  2. Orthopnoea
  3. Hyperventilation
  4. Cheyne-Stokes respiration

Correct Answer: Cheyne-Stokes respiration


Q.49. A bedridden patient is having intact skin at the sacral region, and the symptoms of warmness, pain and firm skin at the site. What is the stage of bedsore?

  1. Stage III
  2. Stage II
  3. Stage I
  4. Stage IV

Correct Answer: Stage I



Q.50. Following death, the subjective response experienced by the surviving loved ones is called:

  1. Bereavement
  2. Mourning
  3. Compliance
  4. Grief

Correct Answer: Bereavement

Q.51. Which of the following electrolytes does insulin help to move into the cells?

  1. Bicarbonates
  2. Chloride
  3. Carbonates
  4. Potassium

Correct Answer: Potassium


Q.52. Temperature of 98.7 degree Fahrenheit is approximately equal to degree Celsius.

  1. 38.16
  2. 37.56
  3. 37.06
  4. 36.52

Correct Answer: 37.06


Q.53. Difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure is called:

  1. Pulse range
  2. Pulse length
  3. Pulse deficit
  4. Pulse pressure

Correct Answer: Pulse pressure



Q.54. Formula to calculate BMI is:

  1. Weight in kg divided by square of height in meters
  2. Weight in kg divided by height in feet
  3. Weight in kg divided by square of height in feet
  4. Weight in kg divided by height in meters

Correct Answer: Weight in kg divided by square of height in meters

Q.55. Which of the following equipment is used for the examination of the ear?

  1. Ophthalmoscope
  2. Laryngoscope
  3. Otoscope
  4. Proctoscope

Correct Answer: Otoscope

Q.56. The specific gravity of the urine normally ranges approximately from:

  1. 1.8 to 2.0
  2. 1.5 to 1.8
  3. 0.75 to 1.00
  4. 1.01 to 1.025


Correct Answer: 1.01 to 1.025

Q.57. Insertion of a tube inside the stomach through the nose is called nasogastric …………..

  1. Irrigation
  2. Intubation
  3. Extubation
  4. Urigation

Correct Answer: Intubation


Q.58. Intravenous solution of 0.45% sodium chloride is a/an ………………. Solution.

  1. Colloid
  2. Hypertonic
  3. Hypotonic
  4. Isotonic

Correct Answer: Hypotonic


Q.59.  ………… is the process of introducing a disinfectant solution to the internal environment of the body when someone passes away.

  1. Eubacterium
  2. Revaccination
  3. Embalming
  4. Rinsing

Correct Answer: Embalming


Q.60. ………….. enema is also called antispasmodic enema.

a, Cold

  1. Carminative
  2. Antihelminthic
  3. Oil


Correct Answer: Carminative

Q.61. HbA1c (glycated haemoglobin) value reflects the blood glucose levels in the past ………… months.

  1. 1
  2. 7
  3. 3
  4. 9


Correct Answer: 3

Q.62. The sudden fall of temperature from high to normal within a few hours is called:

  1. Hypothermia
  2. Lysis
  3. True crisis
  4. False crisis


Correct Answer: True crisis

Q.63. In a healthy individual, weighing 70 kg at rest, the stroke volume is about:

  1. 150 mL
  2. 100 mL
  3. 50 mL
  4. 70 mL

Correct Answer: 70 mL

Q.64. The fever in which temperature remains above normal throughout the day and fluctuate more than 2 degree Fahrenheit is known as ………. fever.

  1. lysis
  2. Remittent
  3. Inverted
  4. Intermittent

Correct Answer: Remittent


Q.65. The site of pulse in the neck is called:

  1. Temporal
  2. Radial
  3. Carotid
  4. Popliteal

Correct Answer: Carotid


Q.66. The gradual decrease in body’s temperature after death is called:

  1. Stiff mortis
  2. Algor mortis
  3. Rigor mortis
  4. Livor mortis

Correct Answer: Algor mortis

Q.67. The discoloration that appears in the dependent areas of the body after death is called:

  1. Rigor mortis
  2. Livor mortis
  3. Algor mortis
  4. Stiff mortis


Correct Answer: Livor mortis

Q.68. Kussmaul breathing is associated with:

  1. Heart failure
  2. Diabetic ketoacidosis
  3. Bronchial asthma
  4. Atelectasis


Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

Q.69. Absorptive dressings are intended to:

  1. Absorb nutrients for the wound
  2. Remove drainage from the bed sore
  3. Gather moisture from the atmosphere to keep the wound cool
  4. Absorb blood from veins


Correct Answer: Remove drainage from the bed sore

Q.70. Which of the following medication orders are for every other day?

  1. qod
  2. qh
  3. qd
  4. bid

Correct Answer: qod

Q.71. A patient is to receive 1000 mL of IV fluid in 6 hours. The drop factor is 15 drops per mL. At approximately how many drops per minute should the flow rate be set?

  1. 42 drops/min
  2. 21 drops/min
  3. 55 drops/min
  4. 33 drops/min


Correct Answer: 42 drops/min

Q.72. In which of the following positions is the patient at greatest risk of shearing force?

  1. Semi-Fowler’s position
  2. Lying supine in bed
  3. Trendelenburg position
  4. High-Fowler’s position

Correct Answer: High-Fowler’s position


Q.73. Movement of the joints away from the mid-line of the body is called:

  1. Addiction
  2. Adhesion
  3. Adduction
  4. Abduction


Correct Answer: Abduction


Q.74. What does the term Cheilosis mean?

  1. Cracking of lips
  2. Bad breath
  3. Inflammation of the gums
  4. Inflammation of the tongue


Correct Answer: Cracking of lips

Q.75. Breathing that is normal in rate and depth is called:

  1. Bradypnea
  2. Tachypnea.
  3. Apnea.
  4. Eupnea


Correct Answer: Eupnea

Q.76. Stiffness in the body that occurs after 2 to 4 hours after death is called:

  1. Livor mortis
  2. Algor mortis
  3. Stiff mortis
  4. Rigor mortis

Correct Answer: Rigor mortis


Q.77. Which of the following is NOT an example of dry cold application?

  1. Cold compress
  2. Ice pack
  3. Ice cradle
  4. Ice bag

Correct Answer: Cold compress


Q.78. The main intracellular cation is:

  1. Zinc
  2. Chloride
  3. Potassium
  4. Halide

Correct Answer: Potassium


Q.79. Inflammation of the oral mucosa is known as:

  1. Gingivitis
  2. Glossitis
  3. Parotitis
  4. Stomatitis

Correct Answer: Stomatitis


Q.80. Which of the following medication orders is administered immediately and only once?

  1. Single order
  2. PRN order
  3. Stat order
  4. Standing order

Correct Answer: Stat order


Q.81. Koplik’s spots are the clinical feature of:

  1. Cholera
  2. Chickenpox
  3. Measles
  4. Pertussis

Correct Answer: Measles

Q.82. One CHC covers a population of ………… in hilly areas.

  1. 80000
  2. 10000
  3. 30000
  4. 50000

Correct Answer: 80000


Q.83. The number of all current cases of a disease at one point of time is called:

  1. Period prevalence
  2. Point incidence
  3. Point prevalence
  4. Time prevalence


Correct Answer: Point prevalence

Q.84. In which year was the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) introduced?

  1. 2006
  2. 2008
  3. 2007
  4. 2005

Correct Answer: 2008


Q.85. Hardness of water is expressed as:

  1. PPL
  2. mg/L
  3. mEq/ML
  4. mg%

Correct Answer: mg/L


Q.86. The route of administration of hepatitis B vaccine is:

  1. Intramuscular
  2. Subcutaneous
  3. Intrathecal
  4. Intradermal


Correct Answer: Intramuscular

Q.87. The constant presence of a disease or infection within a given geographic area is called:

  1. Sporadic
  2. Endemic
  3. Pandemic
  4. Epidemic


Correct Answer: Endemic

Q.88. The denominator used to calculate crude birth rate is:

  1. School-going population
  2. Live births in that year
  3. Mid-year population in that year
  4. Population aged 18 years or above

Correct Answer: Mid-year population in that year


Q.89. What was the theme of World Health Day 2019?

  1. Halt the rise: beat diabetes
  2. Healthy heart beat: healthy blood pressure
  3. Food safety
  4. Universal health coverage: everyone, everywhere

Correct Answer: Universal health coverage: everyone, everywhere


Q.90. What is the minimum contact time required for the chlorination of water to take place?

  1. 10 minutes
  2. 90 minutes
  3. 60 minutes
  4. 30 minutes


Correct Answer: 30 minutes


Q.91. Which of the following digestive enzymes present in juice is primarily responsible for breaking down proteins?

  1. Trypsin
  2. Pepsin
  3. Peptidases.
  4. Chymotrypsin gastric


Correct Answer: Pepsin

Q.92. Emulsification of lipids in the small intestine requires:

  1. Gastric lipase
  2. Pepsin
  3. Pancreatic lipase
  4. Bile salts


Correct Answer: Bile salts

Q.93. Which of the following nutrients provides energy to the body?

  1. Fat
  2. Zinc
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin D


Correct Answer: Fat

Q.94. Which of the following is precursor to vitamin A?

  1. Pyridoxine
  2. Beta-carotene
  3. Thiamine
  4. Retinol

Correct Answer: Beta-carotene


Q.95. An average healthy person with no diseases should ideally get ……….. of his/her daily calorie requirements from get healthy fats.

  1. 50% to 60%
  2. 70% to 80%
  3. 20% to 30%
  4. 5% to 10%

Correct Answer: 20% to 30%

Q.96. In which organ does the absorption of iron takes place?

  1. Colon
  2. Duodenum in small intestine
  3. Liver
  4. Stomach

Correct Answer: Duodenum in small intestine


Q.97. Vitamin B1 is also known as:

  1. Pyridoxine
  2. Thiamine
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Niacin

Correct Answer: Thiamine

Q.98. Which of the following trace elements is essential for the synthesis of insulin?

  1. Cobalt
  2. Iron
  3. Zinc
  4. Sodium

Correct Answer: Zinc


Q.99. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

  1. Niacin
  2. Thiamine
  3. Pyridoxine
  4. Valine

Correct Answer: Valine

Q.100. Calories generated per gram of fat is approximately:

  1. 4 Kcals
  2. 15 Kcals
  3. 1 Kcals
  4. 9 Kcals

Correct Answer: 9 Kcals




Q.101. Which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?

  1. Ranitidine
  2. Famotidine
  3. Pantoprazole
  4. Sucralfate


Correct Answer: Pantoprazole

Q.102. Diabetes insipidus is caused by the deficiency of which of the following hormones?

  1. Antidiuretic
  2. Glucagon
  3. Insulin
  4. Renin

Correct Answer: Antidiuretic


Q.103. The name of the surgery in which there is removal of duodenum, head of pancreas, gallbladder and bile ducts is called:

  1. Appendectomy
  2. Lumpectomy
  3. Discectomy
  4. Pancreatoduodenectomy

Correct Answer: Pancreatoduodenectomy



Q.104. Bell’s Palsy is a disorder of the …………… cranial nerve.

  1. 3rd
  2. 7th
  3. 9th
  4. 5th

Correct Answer: 7th

Q.105. The most common side effect of thrombolytic therapy is:

  1. Metabolic abnormalities
  2. Internal bleeding
  3. Compartment syndrome
  4. Acute renal failure

Correct Answer: Internal bleeding

Q.106. Which type of solution causes water to shift from the cells into the plasma?

  1. Alkaline
  2. Hypotonic
  3. Acidic
  4. Hypertonic

Correct Answer: Hypertonic

Q.107. An individual with which of the following blood groups is a universal donor?

  1. A-ve
  2. B +ve
  3. AB +ve
  4. O-ve

Correct Answer: O-ve

Q.108. The loss of urine resulting from cognitive or environmental factors is the manifestation of:

  1. Overflow incontinence
  2. Functional incontinence
  3. Urge incontinence
  4. Reflex incontinence


Correct Answer: Functional incontinence

Q.109. While assessing the level of consciousness of a patient using Glasgow Coma Scale, which of the following score represents the best motor response from the patient?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6


Correct Answer: 6

Q.110. The loss of ability to recognize objects is called:

  1. Dysarthria
  2. Alexia
  3. Ataxia
  4. Agnosia

Correct Answer: Agnosia

Q.111. Which of the following is glandular tissue cancer?

  1. Liposarcoma
  2. Adenocarcinoma
  3. Neuroblastoma
  4. Osteogenic sarcoma

Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma

Q.112. The cell-mediated immunity is carried out by:

  1. Red blood cells
  2. T lymphocytes.
  3. B lymphocytes
  4. CD4 cells


Correct Answer: T lymphocytes.

Q.113. The lateral S-shaped curvature of the spine is called:

  1. Scoliosis
  2. Musculosis
  3. Kyphosis
  4. Lordosis


Correct Answer: Scoliosis



Q.114. ……………. is a radiological examination using a minimal and safe amount of radiation to allow visualization of breast masses.

  1. Computed tomography scan
  2. Lymphangiogram
  3. Angiogram
  4. Mammogram


Correct Answer: Mammogram

Q.115. Barium enema is used mainly for radiological examination of the:

  1. Brain
  2. Colon
  3. Heart
  4. Oral cavity

Correct Answer: Colon


Q.116. While doing colostomy irrigation, the height of the irrigation bag should be around:

  1. 18 inches
  2. 24 inches
  3. 12 inches
  4. 36 inches


Correct Answer: 18 inches

Q.117. Which one of the following procedures is used to correct otosclerosis?

  1. Myringoplasty
  2. Myringotomy
  3. Mastoidectomy
  4. Stapedectomy

Correct Answer: Stapedectomy


Q.118. The term pyrosis is related to:

  1. Heartburn
  2. Pus formation
  3. Dysphagia
  4. Dyspepsia

Correct Answer: Heartburn


Q.119. The drugs used to constrict the pupils are:

  1. Mydriatics
  2. Sulphonamides
  3. Antibiotics
  4. Miotics

Correct Answer: Miotics


Q.120. Which of the following parts of an eye alters the size of the pupil to regulate the amount of light entering the eye?

  1. Lens
  2. Cornea
  3. Retina
  4. Iris

Correct Answer: Iris



Q.121. The type of incontinence in which there is constant dribbling of urine and is associated with urinating frequently and in small amount is called:

  1. Overflow incontinence
  2. Stress incontinence
  3. Functional incontinence
  4. Urge incontinence

Correct Answer: Overflow incontinence


Q.122. Using the ‘rule of nine, estimated burn size in an adult having burn injury to chest and stomach is __________ per cent.

  1. 18
  2. 27
  3. 36
  4. 9

Correct Answer: 18


Q.123. Which among the following is a colloid solution?

  1. 0.9% normal saline
  2. Dextran
  3. 0.45% normal saline
  4. 25% dextrose

Correct Answer: Dextran


Q.124. Which of the following results from severe allergic reaction producing overwhelming systemic vasodilation and relative hypovolemia?

  1. Hypovolemia shock
  2. Anaphylactic shock
  3. Neurogenic shock
  4. Septic shock


Correct Answer: Anaphylactic shock

Q.125. Which of the following enzymes converts fats into fatty acids and glycerol?

  1. Bile
  2. Trypsinogen
  3. Salivary amylase
  4. Lipase

Correct Answer: Lipase


Q.126. The movement of particles from region of higher concentration to region of lower concentration is called:

  1. Diffusion
  2. Filtration
  3. Osmosis
  4. Hydrolysis

Correct Answer: Diffusion


Q.127. In acute pancreatitis, the levels of which of the following enzymes remain elevated for 7-14 days?

  1. Urine amylase
  2. Serum amylase
  3. Serum alkaline phosphatase
  4. Serum lipase

Correct Answer: Serum lipase


Q.128. Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of interstitial cystitis (IC)?

  1. Frequency
  2. Incontinence
  3. Urgency
  4. Pelvis pain


Correct Answer: Incontinence




Q.129. The disease that occurs due to the defect in the genes of one or other parent and is transmitted to the offspring is known as__________ disease/disorder.

  1. Congenital

b.. Organic

  1. Hereditary
  2. Allergic


Correct Answer: Hereditary

Q.130. Tonometry is the method of measuring the:

  1. Pressure inside the lungs
  2. Pressure inside the ear
  3. Intraocular pressure
  4. Blood pressure


Correct Answer: Intraocular pressure


Q.131. Haemophilia is associated with:

  1. Chromosome 11
  2. Y Chromosome
  3. Chromosome 21
  4. X chromosome


Correct Answer: X chromosome


Q.132. After a renal transplant, the rejection that occurs within minutes is called:

  1. Hyper acute rejection
  2. Chronic rejection
  3. Acute rejection
  4. Sub-acute rejection

Correct Answer: Hyper acute rejection

Q.133. Which of the following drugs is used for the dilation of pupil?

  1. Tropicamide
  2. Betamethasone
  3. Levofloxacin
  4. Gentamicin

Correct Answer: Tropicamide


Q.134. What is the minimum possible score of Glasgow Coma Scale?

  1. 3
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 0

Correct Answer: 3


Q.135. The voice box is known as:

  1. Larynx
  2. Diaphragm
  3. Bronchioles
  4. Pharynx

Correct Answer: Larynx


Q.136. The most serious complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a blockage known as ……………

  1. Formation of venous ulcers
  2. Chronic occlusion of veins
  3. Gangrenous development of veins
  4. Pulmonary embolism

Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism


Q.137. Painful swallowing is known as:

  1. Dysphasia
  2. Odynophagia
  3. Ataxia
  4. Dyspepsia


Correct Answer: Odynophagia


Q.138. The antidote of warfarin is:

  1. Protamine sulfate
  2. Vitamin K
  3. Heparin
  4. Acetyl cysteine


Correct Answer: Vitamin K

Q.139. The most common lung cancer seen in non-smokers is:

  1. Small cell carcinoma
  2. Adenocarcinoma
  3. Large cell carcinoma
  4. Squamous cell carcinoma


Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma

Q.140. The presence of stones in the urinary tract is called:

  1. Kidney lithiasis
  2. Stone lithiasis
  3. Urolithiasis
  4. Cholelithiasis

Correct Answer: Urolithiasis


Q.141. The act of purging or purification of emotions is called:

  1. Compulsion
  2. Catharsis
  3. Cataplexy
  4. Confabulation

Correct Answer: Catharsis


Q.142. Which of the following is expected in a patient who is diagnosed with an organic mental disorder?

  1. Intact memory
  2. Appropriate behavior
  3. Disorganization of thoughts
  4. Orientation to person, place and time


Correct Answer: Disorganization of thoughts

Q.143. According to Erikson’s eight stages of development, initiative vs. guilt takes place at:

  1. 20-25 years
  2. 10-15 years
  3. 13-19 years
  4. 3-5 years


Correct Answer: 3-5 years

Q.144. Which of the following is NOT a sign/symptom of the obsessive-compulsive disorder?

  1. No fear of self-harm
  2. Fear of germs or dirt
  3. Obsessive thoughts
  4. Compulsive acts

Correct Answer: No fear of self-harm



Q.145. Which one of the following is derived from the plant ‘Cannabis Sativa’?

  1. Cocaine
  2. Morphine
  3. Ganja
  4. Opium


Correct Answer: Ganja


Q.146. False sensory perception without real external stimulus is known as:

  1. Hallucination
  2. Illusions
  3. Delusions
  4. Thought insertion


Correct Answer: Hallucination


Q.147. A patient admitted in the psychiatric ward refused to eat her lunch stating that the food is poisoned. This kind of response is an example of:

  1. Hallucination
  2. Sympathy
  3. Illusions
  4. Delusions

Correct Answer: Delusions

Q.148. The La Belle indifference is related to:

  1. Conversion reaction
  2. Obsession compulsions disorder
  3. Anxiety disorder
  4. Phobic anxiety

Correct Answer: Conversion reaction

Q.149. The disulfiram therapy is indicated in:

  1. Acute intoxication
  2. Cannabis dependence
  3. Anxiety disorder
  4. Chronic alcoholism

Correct Answer: Chronic alcoholism


Q.150. A person suffering from ……………. , a severe anxiety disorder, is able to speak freely with certain people only and is not able to speak with others, especially with certain social groups such as classmates at school.

  1. Mutism
  2. Aphasia
  3. Selective mutism
  4. Epilepsy


Correct Answer: Selective mutism



Q.151. Ovulation in a female with a 36 days cycle occurs between:

  1. 30th – 34th day
  2. 14th-18th day
  3. 8th-12th day
  4. 20th-24th day

Correct Answer: 20th-24th day


Q.152. The condition where the uterus turns inside out is called:

  1. Uterine Inversion
  2. Prolapse
  3. Anteversion
  4. Retroversion


Correct Answer: Uterine Inversion

Q.153. The graphical record of maternal and fetal data against time during labor on a single sheet of paper is called:

  1. Ultrasonogram
  2. Tocogram
  3. Cardiotocogram
  4. Partogram

Correct Answer: Partogram



Q.154. The most common genital prolapse is:

  1. Rectocele
  2. Cystocele
  3. Procidentia
  4. Enterocele

Correct Answer: Cystocele


Q.155. The first stage of labor is characterized by:

  1. Crowning of the head
  2. Expulsion of the fetus till the placenta
  3. Dilatation of cervix
  4. Delivery of the placenta

Correct Answer: Dilatation of cervix


Q.156. The length of the fallopian tube ranges from:

  1. 22-27 cm
  2. 7-12 cm
  3. 28-31 cm
  4. 2-7 cm

Correct Answer: 7-12 cm


Q.157. The shape of the brim in anthropoid pelvis is:

  1. Triangular with base towards sacrum
  2. Square
  3. Well-rounded
  4. Oval

Correct Answer: Oval


Q.158. The suture that separates the parietal bone from the tabular portion of the occipital bone is called:

  1. Lambdoid suture
  2. Frontal suture
  3. Sagittal suture
  4. Coronal suture

Correct Answer: Lambdoid suture


Q.159. Urine formation usually begins towards the end of the and continues throughout fetal life.

  1. 3-5 weeks
  2. 2-3 weeks
  3. 21-22 weeks
  4. 11-12 weeks

Correct Answer: 11-12 weeks


Q.160. The settling of fetal head into the brim of the pelvis is called:

  1. Crowning of head
  2. Lightening
  3. Engagement
  4. Descent

Correct Answer: Lightening


Q.161. Which of the following is the common site of fertilization?

  1. Interstitial
  2. Isthmic
  3. Ampulla
  4. Infundibulum

Correct Answer: Ampulla


Q.162. At about  _____ of gestation, the height of the uterus is at the level of umbilicus.

  1. 6-8 weeks
  2. 3-5 weeks
  3. 20-22 weeks
  4. 10-12 weeks

Correct Answer: 20-22 weeks


Q.163. The ovarian cycle is initiated by:

  1. Progesterone

b Follicle stimulating hormone

  1. Endorphins
  2. Estrogen

Correct Answer: Follicle stimulating hormone

Q.164. The most common cause of non-engagement at term in primigravida is:

  1. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)
  2. Breech presentation
  3. Hydramnios
  4. Brow presentation


Correct Answer: Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)

Q.165. What is the correct sequence of mitosis?

  1. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
  2. Anaphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase
  3. Telophase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
  4. Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase


Correct Answer: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

Q.166. The uterine fibroid is associated with:

  1. Endometriosis
  2. Amenorrhea
  3. Ovarian cancer
  4. PID


Correct Answer: Endometriosis

Q.167. Inflammation of the fallopian tube is called:

  1. Endometritis
  2. Vaginitis
  3. Salpingitis
  4. Cervicitis

Correct Answer: Salpingitis

Q.168. The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is:

  1. Ampullary region in the fallopian tube
  2. Cervix
  3. Abdomen
  4. Ovary

Correct Answer: Ampullary region in the fallopian tube


Q.169. The darkening of the skin over the forehead, bridge of nose or cheekbones during pregnancy is called:

  1. Chloasma
  2. Chadwick’s sign
  3. Hegar’s sign
  4. Linea nigra

Correct Answer: Chloasma

Q.170. The approximate average weight of placenta at birth is:

  1. 300 g
  2. 400 g
  3. 508 g
  4. 600 g

Correct Answer: 508 g

Q.171. Which of the following hormones is increased in Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome?

  1. 17-OH progesterone
  2. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
  3. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
  4. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

Correct Answer: Luteinizing Hormone (LH)


Q.172. The early puerperium extends:

  1. Until twelve weeks of postpartum
  2. Up to first year of delivery
  3. Until the thirteen weeks of postpartum
  4. Until the first week of postpartum

Correct Answer: Until the first week of postpartum


Q.173. Which one of the following is seen in preeclampsia?

  1. Facial hair
  2. Hypotension
  3. Weight loss
  4. Proteinuria

Correct Answer: Proteinuria


Q.174. A normal umbilical cord contains:

  1. One artery and five veins
  2. Two arteries and one vein
  3. Five arteries and two veins
  4. Two arteries and ten veins

Correct Answer: Two arteries and one vein

Q.175. Oxygenated blood from placenta returns to the fetus via the

  1. Superior vena cava
  2. Inferior vena cava
  3. Umbilical vein
  4. Ductus arteriosus

Correct Answer: Umbilical vein

Q.176. Post-term pregnancy is a pregnancy which continues beyond:

a 294 days

  1. 250 days
  2. 200 days
  3. 170 days

Correct Answer: 294 days

Q.177. What is the ideal average newborn’s head circumference at birth?

  1. 75 cm
  2. 35 cm
  3. 55 cm
  4. 15 cm


Correct Answer: 35 cm


Q.178. Which of the following indicates relationship of long axis of the fetus to that of mother?

  1. Fetal lie
  2. Fetal presentation
  3. Fetal attitude
  4. Fetal position

Correct Answer: Fetal lie

Q.179. The outer most membrane of placenta is called:

  1. Yolk sac
  2. Chorion
  3. Amnion
  4. Meningitis

Correct Answer: Chorion


Q.180. Peg cells are seen in the:

  1. Intestine
  2. Fallopian tubes
  3. Stomach
  4. Vagina

Correct Answer: Fallopian tubes


Q.181. Which of the following is the most important tumor marker to diagnose carcinoma of ovary?

  1. Serum human chorionic gonadotropin
  2. CA 125
  3. Human placental lactogen
  4. Serum alpha fetoprotein

Correct Answer: CA 125

Q.182. The onset of menstruation is called:

  1. Menopause
  2. Menarche
  3. Andropause
  4. Ovarian cycle

Correct Answer: Menarche


Q.183. ……….. of the 6-7 million oocytes available, how many are released during ovulation?

  1. 3000 to 4000
  2. 400 to 500
  3. 2000 to 3000
  4. 100 to 200

Correct Answer: 400 to 500


Q.184. During the active phase of labor, the cervical dilatation per hour in primigravidas is approximately:

  1. 1.2 cm
  2. 1.9 cm
  3. 2.3 cm
  4. 2.5 cm

Correct Answer: 1.2 cm


Q.185. The correct sequence of development of puberty in girls is

  1. Menarche, Pubarche, Thelarche
  2. Thelarche, Pubarche, Menarche
  3. Thelarche, Menarche, Pubarche
  4. Pubarche, Menarche, Thelarche

Correct Answer: Thelarche, Pubarche, Menarche


Q.186. Postpartum hemorrhage is the condition in which there is loss of more than ……….. mL vaginal blood.

  1. 100
  2. 50
  3. 10
  4. 500

Correct Answer: 500

Q.187. The normal APGAR score of a new born is:

a 7 and above

  1. 3 to 4
  2. 4 to 6
  3. Below 3

Correct Answer: 7 and above


Q.188. Which of the following is NOT a feature of HELLP syndrome?

  1. Raised liver enzymes
  2. Eosinophilia
  3. Thrombocytopenia
  4. Hemolytic anemia

Correct Answer: Eosinophilia



Q.189. The first perception of active fetal movement felt by the mother during pregnancy is known as:

  1. Engagement
  2. Hastening
  3. Quickening
  4. Lightening

Correct Answer: Quickening


Q.190. The maneuver commonly used to manage shoulder dystocia is:

  1. Rosette maneuver
  2. Mc Roberts maneuver
  3. Jeff Marshal maneuver
  4. MacMillan maneuver

Correct Answer: Mc Roberts maneuver



Q.191. Which of the following is the most common cause of ophthalmic neonatorum?

  1. Candida albicans
  2. Staphylococcus aureus
  3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  4. Streptococcus


Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Q.192. Which of the following is NOT a part of the Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

  1. Patent ductus arteriosus
  2. Right ventricular hypertrophy
  3. Overriding of aorta
  4. Pulmonary stenosis


Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

Q.193. An injury to the upper brachial plexus results in:

  1. Facial palsy
  2. Phrenic nerve palsy
  3. Klumpke’s palsy
  4. Erb’s palsy


Correct Answer: Erb’s palsy

Q.194. Which of the following is the ideal age for closure of the anterior fontanel of a child?

  1. 18 to 24 months
  2. 6 to 8 weeks
  3. 6 to 8 months
  4. 18 to 24 weeks

Correct Answer: 18 to 24 months


Q.195. Which of the following is NOT a complication of measles?

  1. Laryngitis
  2. Conjunctivitis
  3. Atrial Septal Defect
  4. Encephalitis

Correct Answer: Atrial Septal Defect

Q.196. The most common type of leukemia seen in children is:

  1. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
  2. Chronic lymphoid leukemia (CHL)
  3. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
  4. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)


Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

Q.197. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?

  1. Inattention
  2. Impulsivity
  3. Difficulty in eating
  4. Over activity


Correct Answer: Difficulty in eating

Q.198. Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestations of Trisomy 21?

  1. Flat nasal bridge
  2. Protruding tongue
  3. Long hands and fingers
  4. Small nose


Correct Answer: Long hands and fingers

Q.199. Which of the following conditions can result in a hairy patch on the back of children?

  1. Epilepsy
  2. Hydrocephalus
  3. Spina bifida occulta
  4. Ricket

Correct Answer: Spina bifida occulta

Q.200. The Baby-friendly Hospital Initiative (BFHI) was launched jointly by:

  1. WHO and Red Cross
  2. WHO and FAO
  3. UNICEF and WHO
  4. UNICEF and FAO

Correct Answer: UNICEF and WHO

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