NIMHANS Nursing Officer Question Paper & Answer Key 2019

NIMHANS Nursing Officer Question Paper & Answer Key 2019

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Q.1. Volume of Enema solution for infants:

  1. 100-200 ml
  2. 200-300 ml
  3. 300-400 ml
  4. 400-500 ml

Correct Answer: – 100-200 ml

Q.2. Symptoms of increased ICP in infant:

  1. Vomiting
  2. Heightened alertness
  3. Depressed fontanelle
  4. Diarrhea

Correct Answer: – Vomiting  

Q.3. Contraindications for Lumbar Puncture include:

  1. Increase ICP
  2. Suspected meningitis
  3. Guillain-Barré syndrome
  4. All of the above

Correct Answer: – Increase ICP

Q.4. Therapeutic dosage of lithium:

  1. 300-600 mg/day
  2. 500-800 mg/day
  3. 900-2100 mg/day
  4. 2000-3000 mg/day

Correct Answer: – 900-2100 mg/day

Q.5. Most reliable index of cerebral status:

  1. Pupil response
  2. Deep tendon reflexes
  3. Muscle strength
  4. Level of consciousness

Correct Answer: – Level of consciousness

Q.6. A client is admitted with a head injury. He has a GCS score of 3-5-4. The Nurse’s understanding of this test is that the client………..

  1. Can follow simple commands
  2. Will make no attempt to vocalize
  3. Is unconscious
  4. Is able to open his eyes when spoken to

Correct Answer: – Is able to open his eyes when spoken to

Q.7. Clear fluid draining from the Nose and ear is indicative of:

  1. Rhinorrhea
  2. Basilar skull fracture
  3. Otitis media
  4. Cerebral edema

Correct Answer: – Basilar skull fracture

Q.8. Patient with Increased ICP is receiving Inj. Mannitol. The Nurse’s understanding about the reason for administration of this drug is:

  1. It reduce the secretion of CSF
  2. It increase the urine output
  3. It shift the fluid by osmosis thus decrease the ICP
  4. All of the above

Correct Answer: – It shift the fluid by osmosis thus decrease the ICP

Q.9. Third stage complications of labor is all except:

  1. PPH
  2. Retained Placental Fragments.
  3. Obstructed labor
  4. Pulmonary embolism.

Correct Answer: – Obstructed labor

Q.10. Absence to develop valve between the right atrium and right Ventricle is known as:

  1. Mitral stenosis
  2. PDA
  3. Tricuspid atresia
  4. Pulmonary stenosis

Correct Answer: – Tricuspid atresia

Q.11. Antidepressant used in children for depression:

  1. Amitryptyline
  2. Fluoxetine
  3. Methylphenidate
  4. Imipramine

Correct Answer: – Fluoxetine

Q.12. Which of the following drug is an antidote of opioids?

  1. Fluphenazine
  2. Flumazenil
  3. Benzodiazepines
  4. Naloxone

Correct Answer: – Naloxone

  1. Signs of imminent eclampsia:
  2. BP> 160 mm hg
  3. Nausea
  4. Headache
  5. All of the above

Correct Answer: – BP> 160 mm hg

Q.14. Sausage shape mass in abdominal palpation indicates:

  1. Pyloric stenosis
  2. Appendicitis
  3. Intussusception
  4. Hernia

Correct Answer: – Intussusception

Q.15. Nurse educator teaching about Pain management is:

  1. Doctor orders pain killer based on the patient’s need
  2. Patient can adjust with meter dose based on pain
  3. Modification of pain killer post operatively
  4. All of the above

Correct Answer: – Doctor orders pain killer based on the patient’s need

Q.16. Home visit planning will be based on:

  1. Need of the nurse
  2. Need of the client
  3. Financial status of the patient
  4. Whenever nurse feels

Correct Answer: – Need of the client

Q.17. Immediate management of Wernicke’s encephalopathy:

  1. Administer Inj Thiamine
  2. Ordering EEG
  3. Administer Steroids
  4. Tab Disulfiram

Correct Answer: – Administer Inj Thiamine


Q.18. Delusion of grandiosity is present in:

  1. Depression
  2. Mania
  3. Dissociative disorder
  4. Schizophrenia

Correct Answer: – Mania

Q.19. Asthma is a/an:

  1. Anaphylactic reaction
  2. Fluid accumulation in pleura
  3. Inflammatory disease
  4. Infection

Correct Answer: – Inflammatory disease

Q.20. Vomiting will cause:

  1. Metabolic acidosis
  2. Metabolic Alkalosis
  3. Respiratory acidosis
  4. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct Answer: – Metabolic Alkalosis

Q.21. Fluid replacement preferred in hypovolemic shock is:

  1. Isotonic crystalloid
  2. Hypotonic crystalloid
  3. Hypertonic crystalloid
  4. All of the above

Correct Answer: – Isotonic crystalloid

Q.22. Dose of RhoGAM is ……….

  1. 300 mcg IM within 72 hours after delivery
  2. 200 mcg IM within 72 hours after delivery
  3. 100 mcg IM within 24 hours of delivery
  4. 75 mcg IM within 24 hours of delivery

Correct Answer: – 300 mcg IM within 72 hours after delivery

Q.23. Purpose of antiretroviral therapy is to:

  1. Cure HIV disease
  2. Reduce viral RNA load
  3. Prevent HIV disease
  4. All of the above

Correct Answer: – Reduce viral RNA load


Q.24. Postoperatively, urine sample to be sent for:

  1. Pus cells
  2. Sugar
  3. Protein
  4. Albumin

Correct Answer: – Pus cells

Q.25. Drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia:

  1. Lorazepam
  2. Naproxen
  3. Carbamazepine

Correct Answer: – Carbamazepine

Q.26. What is often the first symptom of Parkinson disease?

  1. Headache
  2. Nausea
  3. Shaking of hand or foot
  4. Turning of head

Correct Answer: – Shaking of hand or foot

Q.27. Parkinsonism is a/an:

  1. Inflammation of nerve pathway
  2. Autoimmune disorder
  3. Degenerative disorder
  4. Nutritional deficiency disorder

Correct Answer: – Degenerative disorder

Q.28. Earliest sign of myasthenia gravis is:

  1. Ptosis
  2. Diplopia
  3. Ascending weakness
  4. Presbycusis

Correct Answer: – Ptosis

Q.29. Sign of Guillain-Barre syndrome include:

  1. Weakness
  2. Diplopia
  3. Muscle rigidity
  4. Tremors

Correct Answer: – Weakness

Q.30. False fixed belief/ideas is known as:

  1. Hallucinations
  2. Illusion
  3. Confabulation
  4. Delusion

Correct Answer: – Delusion

Q.31. Physiological jaundice occurs between:

  1. 0-24 hrs
  2. 0-72 hrs
  3. 24-72 hrs
  4. After 72 hrs

Correct Answer: – 24-72 hrs

Q.32. What is public health nursing?

  1. Providing care to the client who is not in hospital
  2. Providing free treatment in the hospital
  3. Primary focus is on advanced surgical interventions
  4. All of the above

Correct Answer: – Providing care to the client who is not in hospital

Q.33. Which of the following is not an antipsychotic medication?

  1. Haloperidol
  2. Imipramine
  3. Risperidone
  4. Olanzapine

Correct Answer: – Imipramine

Q.34. Normal head circumference at birth:

  1. 30 cm
  2. 35 cm
  3. 40 cm
  4. 45 cm

Correct Answer: – 35 cm

Q.35. Sex ratio is defined as number of:

  1. Females for 1000 males
  2. Males for 100 females
  3. Females for 100 males
  4. Males for 100 females

Correct Answer: – Females for 1000 males

Q.36. Disinfectant of choice for soiled instruments:

  1. Glutaraldehyde
  2. Formaldehyde
  3. Hypochlorite solution
  4. 70% alcohol

Correct Answer: – Glutaraldehyde

Q.37. Management of hypernatremia includes:

  1. Restrict water
  2. Administer furosemide
  3. Free water through RT or by mouth
  4. Administer Normal saline

Correct Answer: – Free water through RT or by mouth

Q.38. Teaching parents of autistic child should include:

  1. Be consistent
  2. Change the routine frequently
  3. Set limits
  4. All of the above

Correct Answer: – Be consistent

Q.39. Disulfiram ethanol reaction is characterized by:

  1. Bradycardia, sweating and hypertension
  2. Headache, hypotension, chest pain
  3. Hypertension, bradycardia and blurred vision
  4. Tachypnea, hypertension and vomiting

Correct Answer: – Headache, hypotension, chest pain

Q.40. Specific test for varicose veins:

  1. Trendelenburg test
  2. Allen’s test
  3. Homan’s test
  4. Kernig’s test

Correct Answer: – Trendelenburg test

Q.41. Global loss of memory, cognition and personality is known as

  1. Delirium
  2. Dissociative disorder
  3. Alzheimer type dementia
  4. Conversion disorder

Correct Answer: – Alzheimer type dementia

Q.42. Which is characterized by recurrent recollection flash backs/ images/thoughts in dream:

  1. Acute stress disorder
  2. Post-traumatic stress disorder
  3. Psychosomatic disorder
  4. Sleep disorder

Correct Answer: – Post-traumatic stress disorder

Q.43. Preoccupation with details/rules, lists, order is seen in which type of personality:

  1. Narcissistic
  2. Histrionic
  3. Obsessive-compulsive
  4. Borderline

Correct Answer: – Obsessive-compulsive

Q.44. Cluster A of the personality disorders includes which disorders?

  1. Antisocial, narcissistic, and borderline
  2. Paranoid, schizotypal and schizoid
  3. Avoidant, obsessive and dependent
  4. Avoidant, schizoid and antisocial

Correct Answer: – Paranoid, schizotypal and schizoid

Q.45. Discharge teaching of paraplegic patient for homecare:

  1. Intermittent catheterization
  2. Percutaneous nephrostomy
  3. Suprapubic catheterization
  4. Heal conduit

Correct Answer: – Intermittent catheterization

Q.46. Spinal cord injury patients will develop:

  1. Loss of bladder control
  2. Preservation of bowel control
  3. Cullen’s sign
  4. Battle’s eye

Correct Answer: – Loss of bladder control


Q.47. Sacralization is a frequent cause of:

  1. Inclination dystocia
  2. Paraplegia
  3. Hemiplegia
  4. Paresthesia

Correct Answer: – Inclination dystocia

Q.48. Type-I hypersensitivity is a/an:

  1. Antibody dependent process
  2. Anaphylactic reaction
  3. Cell mediated process
  4. Delayed hypersensitivity

Correct Answer: – Anaphylactic reaction

Q.49. Ligament which is present in pectoral fascia of breast.

  1. Cooper’s ligament
  2. Round ligament
  3. Broad ligament
  4. Linear ligament

Correct Answer: – Cooper’s ligament

Q.50. Characteristics of malignancy includes:

  1. Controlled growth
  2. Invasiveness
  3. Defined margin
  4. All of the above

Correct Answer: – Invasiveness

  1. Major cause of mortality associated with anorexia nervosa is:
  2. Obesity
  3. Malnutrition
  4. Electrolyte imbalance
  5. Nausea and vomiting

Correct Answer: – Electrolyte imbalance

Q.52. Drug of choice for catatonia?

  1. Benzodiazepines
  2. Haloperidol
  3. Carbamazepine
  4. Sodium Valproate

Correct Answer: – Benzodiazepines


Q.53. Presbyopia is:

  1. Short sightedness
  2. Far sightedness
  3. Changes in curvature of the lens
  4. Retinal detachment

Correct Answer: – Far sightedness

Q.54. Signs of ectopic pregnancy include:

  1. Painless vaginal bleeding
  2. Sharp abdominal pain
  3. Rebound tenderness
  4. Boggy abdomen

Correct Answer: – Sharp abdominal pain

Q.55. Fertilization takes place in:

  1. Ovary
  2. Uterus
  3. Cervix
  4. Fallopian tube

Correct Answer: – Fallopian tube

Q.56. Nursing intervention appropriate for patient with increased ICP:

  1. Provide supine position to the client
  2. Use bright lights in the room
  3. Elevate the head end 15-30 degree
  4. 2 hourly suctioning

Correct Answer: – Elevate the head end 15-30 degree

Q.57. Most appropriate nursing action to a depressed client who do not want to join a group is to:

  1. Tell her the rules of the unit
  2. Better get out of bed or she will be hungry
  3. Tell her that the nurse will assist her out of bed and help her to dress
  4. Allow her to remain in bed until she feels ready to join the other patients

Correct Answer: – Tell her that the nurse will assist her out of bed and help her to dress

Q.58. Optimum bed occupancy of hospital is:

  1. 80%
  2. 85%
  3. 90%
  4. 95%

Correct Answer: – 85%

Q.59. Hand washing day observed on:

  1. September 15
  2. October 15
  3. November 15
  4. December 15

Correct Answer: – October 15

Q.60. Bloom’s taxonomy is used as:

  1. Learning domains
  2. Skill domain
  3. Affective domain
  4. Conative domain

Correct Answer: – Learning domains

Q.61. Directive counselling is also known as:

  1. Client oriented counseling
  2. Personal counseling
  3. Group counselling
  4. Counselor centered or prescriptive counseling

Correct Answer: – Counselor centered or prescriptive counseling

Q.62. How long does an ovum viable after ovulation?

  1. Less than 12 hours
  2. 12-24 hours
  3. 24-48 hours
  4. 48-72 hours

Correct Answer: – 12-24 hours

Q.63. Reflex which present at 9 months of age is all except:

  1. Tonic neck reflex
  2. Parachute reflex
  3. Swallowing
  4. Sucking

Correct Answer: – Tonic neck reflex

Q.64. Which of the following advice is appropriate for a mother who refuses to immunize her baby?

  1. Vaccines are expensive and here you get it free
  2. Immunization is okay for your child
  3. It is up to you if your baby get illness
  4. Vaccines will prevent diseases

Correct Answer: – Vaccines will prevent diseases

Q.65. What is the initial nursing action for a client who is in the clonic phase of a tonic-clonic seizure?

  1. Gently restrain the extremities
  2. Insert a padded mouth gag
  3. Place some padding under the head
  4. Get ready the equipment for orotracheal suction

Correct Answer: – Place some padding under the head

Q.66. A 47-year-old female client with a diagnosis of depression has been in the hospital for 3 days. During this time, she has not maintained her personal hygiene and show no interest in ward activities. On this day, the nurse observes that she is wearing a clean dress and has combed her hair. In working with a depressed client, the nurse should understand that depression is most directly related to a person’s:

  1. Experiencing poor IPR with others
  2. Remembering his traumatic childhood.
  3. Having experienced a sense of loss.
  4. Stage in life.

Correct Answer: – Having experienced a sense of loss.

Q.67. The client has been on long-term phenothiazines (Thorazine), 400 mg/day. Patient had jerky choreiform movements, lip smacking, neck and back tonic contractions. This indicates that the patient has developed…….

  1. Tardive dyskinesia
  2. Parkinsonism
  3. Dystonia
  4. Akathisia

Correct Answer: – Tardive dyskinesia

Q.68. A patient with diagnosis of BPAD is being discharged from the hospital with a regular lithium medication. The most important information to impart to the client and his family in the discharge teaching is that the patient should:

  1. Have an adequate intake of sodium
  2. Restrict his fluid intake
  3. Restrict intake of sodium
  4. Avoid tyramine rich foods

Correct Answer: – Have an adequate intake of sodium


Q.69. The nurse has to administer phenytoin 100 mg IV as an anticonvulsant. The priority action while administering this drug is to:

  1. Assess for infiltration of the drug
  2. Assess for effects of the drug
  3. Assess pupil dilation of the client to detect for overdose
  4. Administer the drug as quickly as possible to prevent a seizure

Correct Answer: – Assess for infiltration of the drug

Q.70. While caring for a patient who is in myasthenic and cholinergic crisis, which of the following is essential nursing knowledge when caring for a client in crisis?

  1. Loss of body function creates high levels of anxiety and fear
  2. Cholinergic drugs should be administered
  3. The clinical condition of the client usually improves after several days of treatment
  4. Weakness and paralysis of the muscles for swallowing and breathing occur in either crisis

Correct Answer: – Weakness and paralysis of the muscles for swallowing and breathing occur in either crisis

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