NHM Haryana CHO 2022 Question Paper & Answer Keys Download SET – A

NHM Haryana CHO 2022 Question Paper & Answer Keys Download SET – A

NHM Haryana CHO 2022 Question Paper & Answer Keys Download SET – A


Q.NO: 1. The client is complaining of shortness of breath. The bed is currently in the flat position. In which position should the nurse place the bed?

(A) Fowler’s

(B) Lithotomy

(C) Trendelenburg

(D) Sim’s


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 2. Health promotion is best represented by which activity?

(A) Administering immunizations

(B) Giving a bath

(C) Preventing accidents in home

(D) Performing diagnostic procedures


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 3. What is the most common client position used for administer a cleansing enema?

(A) Lithotomy position

(B) Supine position

(C) Prone position

(D) Sim’s left lateral position


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 4. Milk is a poor source of ________________________.

(A) Calcium

(B) Iron

(C) Vitamin A

(D) Sodium


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 5. Mr. X is to be administered with 200 ml of normal saline per hour using adult infusion set. How much should be the drop rate? (1 ml = 20 drops)

(A) 67

(B) 70

(C) 73

(D) 75

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 6. Dowry death is defined under section_________________.

(A) 304A IPC

(B) 304B IPC

(C) 376A IPC

(D) 376D IPC

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 7. Which of the following test is used to assess the visual acuity?

(A) Slit lamp

(B) Snellen’s Chart

(C) Wood’s light

(D) Gonioscopy

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 8. A patient with trigeminal neuralgia will demonstrate which of the following major complaints?

(A) Excruciating, intermittent paroxysmal facial pain

(B) Unilateral facial droop

(C) Painless eye spasm

(D) Mildly painful unilateral eye twitching

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 9. All of the following are components of APGAR score, EXCEPT____________________

(A) Heart rate

(B) Respiration

(C) Blood pressure

(D) Muscle tone

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 10. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) centre is run by___________________

(A) Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM)

(B) Public Health Nurse (PHN)

(C) Dai

(D) Anganwadi Worker

Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 11. Antidote for Magnesium sulphate toxicity is ______________

(A) Calcium gluconate

(B)     Magnesium Sulphate

(C) Heparin

(D) Vitamin K

Correct Answer:


Q.NO: 12. Rotating injection sites when administering Insulin prevents which of the following complications?

(A) Insulin edema

(B) Insulin lipodystrophy

(C) Insulin resistance

(D) Systemic allergic reactions

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 13. Which of the following is the ‘Flight or Fright’ hormone?

(A) Progesterone

(B) Adrenaline

(C) Glucagon

(D) Aldosterone

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 14. Kempner’s rice fruit diet is prescribed for ______________.

(A) Hypertension

(B) Diabetes

(C) Constipation

(D) Peptic ulcer

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 15. Health Care provider had needle stick injury from a known HIV infected patient. He should certainly start post-exposure prophylaxis within how many hours of exposure?

(A) 72 hours

(B) 85 hours

(C) 90 hours

(D) 92 hours

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 16. Standard precautions are used ____________

(A) For all patients

(B) For all patients unless they are under transmission-based precautions

(C) For all patients except those in protective isolation

(D) For any patient the nurse believes might be infectious

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 17. The difference between apical and radial pulse is______________________

(A) Pulse deficit

(B) Pulsus paradoxus

(C) Auscultatory gap

(D) Pulse pressure

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 18. Which of the following solution is recommended for oral care?

(A) Dettol

(B) 5% Savlon

(C) 2% chlorhexidine

(D) 10% Sodium Hypochlorite

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 19. Shakir’s tape is used for measuring______________________

(A) Colour-blindness

(B) Height

(C) Mid upper arm circumference

(D) Chest circumference

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 20. TORCH infection indicates______________

(A) Toxoplasma, Other agents, German measles, Cytomegalovirus and Herpes simplex virus.

(B) Tetanus, Other agents, German measles, Candida and Herpes Simplex Virus.

(C) Tetanus, Other agents, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus and Herpes Simplex virus.

(D) Toxoplasma, Other agents, Rubella, Candida and Herpes Simplex virus.

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 21. Crowning is defined as ___________________

(A) When the maximum diameter of head stretches the vulval outlet without any recession of the head even after the contraction is over

(B) When fetal head and shoulders are visible at pelvic floor

(C) When the head is delivered

(D) Torsion of the neck


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 22. In Females, the onset of puberty is first marked by _________________________________________

(A) Menarche

(B) Thelarche

(C) Pubarche

(D) Adrenarche


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 23. Which of the following is CORRECT about the measurement of uterus fundal height at various stages of gestation in pregnant women?

(A) At 6 weeks, you can feel it in abdomen

(B) At 12 weeks, it is at umbilical level

(C) At 20 weeks, it reaches pelvic girdle

(D) At 36 weeks, it felt at lower part of sternum


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 24. Oxytocin is useful for_________________

(A) Induction of labour

(B) Menorrhagia

(C) Hyperprolactinemia

(D) Infertility


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 25. A nurse suspects that a six-month-old infant has cystic fibrosis. Which of the following tests would confirm that diagnosis?

(A) Quantitative collection of stool sample for fecal fat

(B) Pulmonary function studies

(C) Sweat chloride analysis

(D) Serum sample for human leukocyte antigen


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 26. Which of the following vaccinations are given to newborn immediately after birth?

(A) Oral Polio Vaccine, Hepatitis B, BCG

(B) Measles, Oral Polio Vaccine, Hepatitis B

(C) Oral Polio Vaccine, BCG, Hepatitis A

(D) Hepatitis A, BCG, Injectable Polio Vaccine


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 27. What is ideal temperature to store DPT vaccine?

(A) Room temperature

(B) 2 to 8 0C

(C) 0 to 2 0C

(D) 16 to 22 0C


Correct Answer:


Q.NO: 28. Growth chart or ‘Road to Health’ is a visible display of_________________________.

(A) Height for age

(B) Weight for height

(C) Height for weight

(D) Weight for age


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 29. Which of the following produce antibodies?

(A) Monocytes

(B) B-lymphocytes

(C) Granulocytes

(D) T-lymphocytes


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 30. Kukunaka is a disease related to________________.

(A) Head

(B) Eye

(C) Anus

(D) Kaksha


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 31. In lead poisoning, the Burton’s line appears as___________________      

(A) Bluish purple line on gums

(B) Greenish coating on gums

(C) Brown stains on teeth

(D) Rust colour line on gums


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 32.—————————- Deficiency of Vitamin B12 causes______________.

(A) Night-blindness

(B) Pernicious anemia

(C) Rickets

(D) Scurvy


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 33. Richa, a mother of 7-months-old infant, is concerned about motor skills development of her child. Nurse should explain that the activity, infant is most likely to do at his age is_________________.

(A) Walk with one hand held

(B) Eat successfully with spoon

(C) Stand without holding on to furniture

(D) Sit alone using the hands for support


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 34. Cracked pot sound on percussion over hydrocephalus baby is called as________________.

(A) Chadwick s sign

(B) Homan’s sign

(C) Kernig’s sign

(D) Macewen’s sign


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 35. Which of the following is FALSE about weight gain in 0-5 years old children?

(A) Healthy babies double their birth weight by 6 months.

(B) Their weight should be 4 times the birth weight by one year.

(C) After 2 years age weight gain is expected to be at least 2 kg per year.

(D) A birth weight of below 2.5 kg is classified as low birth weight


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 36. Which of the following guidelines is TRUE about integrated management of sick children aged below 2 months?

(A) Pink color classification indicates home based care.

(B) A child NOT feeding well should be managed in OPD.

(C) Jaundice appearing in a baby after 24 hours of age and palm or sole not yellow should indicate HOME CARE

(D) A child with diarrhoea having sluggish movements indicates HOME CARE.


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 37. Nerve involved in Bell’s palsy is_____________________.

(A) Facial    nerve

(B) Vagus nerve

(C) Abducens nerve

(D) Trigeminal nerve


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 38. What is the BMI of a male whose weight is 72 kg and height is 160 cm?

(A) 26

(B) 28

(C) 30

(D) 34


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 39. Classical conditioning theory which is applied in behavior therapy was described by ________________

(A) Abraham Maslow

(B) lvan Pavlov

(C) Sigmund Freud

(D) Maxwell Jones

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 40. Bleaching powder needed to disinfect 1000 liters of water is __________________________

(A) 2.0 gms

(B) 5 gms

(C) 2.5 gms

(D) 3.5 gms


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 41. Point Prevalence of a disease is defined as ________________________

(A) Number of Old cases present during a specific time in a given population.

(B) Number of current cases existing over a specified period of time in a given population.

(c) Number of new cases existing over a specified period of time in a given population.

(D) Number of current cases at a specified point of time in a given population.


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 42. Sum of the deviation of the variable values 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 14  from their mean is _______________.

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 5

(D) 7


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 43. Which of the following hepatitis is transmitted by FECO-ORAL route?

(A) Hepatitis B

(B) Hepatitis C

(C) Hepatitis D

(D) Hepatitis E


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 44. Early ambulation in postoperative period prevents which complication?

(A) Pain

(B) Deep vein thrombosis

(C) Vomiting

(D) Infection


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 45. Rovsing’s sign is positive in _____________________________

(A) Colitis

(B) Cholecystitis

(C) Appendicitis

(D) Pancreatitis


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 46.   A patient has the following ABG results: pH 7.25, PaCO2: 50 mmHg, HCO3-30 mmol/L. This is suggestive of ______________________________.

(A) Respiratory acidosis (Decompensated)

(B) Respiratory acidosis (Compensated)

(C) Metabolic acidosis (Decompensated)

(D) Metabolic acidosis (Compensated)


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 47. Which of the following option correctly defines the full form of AMRIT scheme launched in India to provide affordable drugs for cancer & heart diseases?

(A) Affordable Medicines and Reliable Implants for Treatment

(B) Affordable Medicines for Rejuvenation and Integrated Transformation

(C) Affordable Medicines for Reliable and Integrated Health Treatment

(D) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Integrated Transformation


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 48.  What are the three  dimensions of the UNDP’s Human Development index?

(A) Long and Healthy life, Knowledge & A decent standard of living

(B) Inequality in income, Knowledge & A decent standard of living

(C) Long and Healthy Life, Population suffering from Poverty & A decent standard of living.

(D) Long and Healthy Life Knowledge & Growth rate of Population


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 49 Under Prime Minister Jan Arogya Yojana [PMJAY], how much health coverage provided to per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization?

(A) up to Rs 1 lakh

(B) up to Rs 3 lakhs

(C) up to Rs 5 lakhs

(D) up to Rs 7 lakhs


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 50. Which of the following health problems is NOT covered by Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram?

(A) Developmental delay

(B) Vision impairment

(C) Vitamin A deficiency

(D) Rubella

Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 51. Which of the following is TRUE about Mid-Day Meal program?

(A) It should replace home diet

(B) It should have a low cost

(C) It’s menu should be fixed

(D) It should cover two third of calorie needs of the students


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 52. Which of the following is TRUE about the National Program for Control of Blindness?

(A) It aimed to reduce avoidable Blindness by 2020.

(B) It excluded diabetic retinopathy from its domain

(C) It does not cover refractory errors screening in schools

(D) It aimed to reduce help from voluntary organizations in delivering eye care


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 53. Which of the following is TRUE about the National Leprosy Eradication Program?

(A) It started as leprosy CONTROL program in 1955.

(B) It was converted into an ERADICATION program in 2002.

(C) It included MDT (multi-drug therapy) in 2005.

(D) Leprosy cases are increasing at a steady rate since 2011.


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 54. Which of the following is TRUE about the National Family Welfare Program?

(A) It was started in 1955.

(B) It has been discontinued in 2021.

(C) Introduction of contraceptives DID NOT affect it.

(D) In 1992 it was integrated with Child Survival and Safe- Motherhood.


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 55. Which of the following is FALSE about Janani Suraksha Yojana?

(A) It was launched in 2005.

(B) It aims to revive Dai training.

(C) It involves cash incentives to ASHA workers

(D) It also aims to reduce neonatal mortality


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 56. What stands for ‘S’ in “SATH”, an Initiative by Government of India to Initiate transformation in Health and education sectors by associating with states?

(A) Supportive

(B) Social

(C) Supervisory

(D) Sustainable


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 57. ASHA worker is trained to work as an interface between the community and the public health system. The full form of ASHA is___________________.

(A) Accredited Social Health Activist

(B) Accredited Society Health Activator

(C) Activated Social Help Activist

(D) Associated Society Health Activator


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 58. As per National Water Supply and Sanitation Program a ‘problem village’ is one_________________.

(A) Where safe water is available within a kilometer

(B) Where water is available within a depth of 5 meters

(C) Where water has excess salinity

(D) Where water has less iron content



Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 59.   Which of the following is FALSE about antenatal care and its purpose?

(A) It should start only after 12 weeks gestation

(B) It seeks to identify high risk pregnancy

(C) It incorporates attention to accompanying under-fives.

(D) It incorporates sensitizing mothers about family planning


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 60. Case finding in RNTCP is based on__________________________.          

(A) Sputum Culture

(B) Chest X-ray

(C) Sputum microscopy

(D) Mantoux test


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 61. The extermination of root cause of disease is called _______________________.

(A) Eradication

(B) Elimination

(C) Control

(D) Monitoring


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 62. In an outbreak of a viral haemorrhagic fever in a village of 20000 population 200 cases have occurred and 25 have died. Calculate the case fatality rate.

(A) 1.25%

(B) 0.13%

(C) 25%

(D) 12.50%


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 63. Which of the following is Not a service provided under ICDS Scheme?

(A) Pre-school non-formal education

(B) Mid-day meal

(C) Health check-up and referral services

(D) Immunization


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 64. Which of the following is NOT transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes?

(A) West Nile virus

(B) Zika virus

(C) Yellow fever

(D) Chikungunya


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 65. Sensitivity is defined as_________________________.

(A) Probability of true diagnosis when disease is present

(B) Probability of false diagnosis when disease is present

(C) Probability of true diagnosis when disease is not present

(D) Probability of false diagnosis when disease is present


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 66. The Nurse health Educates the group of middle-aged women to undergo which of the following test for screening of cervical cancer?

(A) Mantoux test

(B) Ultrasonography

(C) Fine Needle aspiration cytology

(D) Pap smear


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 67. ‘Sambhav’ and ‘Swavlamban’ initiatives are related with _______________________.   

(A) Plastic waste

(B) Electronics waste

(C) Bio waste

(D) Water waste


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 68. Novak Djokovic won his___________________ Paris Masters Title in 2021.

(A) 4th

(B) 5th

(C) 6th

(D) 7th


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 69.   Ruler of Ballabhgarh, Sher Nahar Singh joined hands with which of the following Mughal emperor to defeat British?

(A) Akbar Shah

(B) Shah Alam

(C) Bahadur Shah Jafar

(D) Shah Jahan


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 70. Who among the following was first women to climb Mount Everest Twice?

(A) Santosh Yadav

{B) Bachendri Pal

(C) Sharon Wood

(D) Cathy O’Dowd



Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 71. In which of the following years, East India company was dissolved (Ceased Operations)?

(A) 1871

(B) 1872

(C) 1873

(D) 1874


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 72. Which of the following dams is oldest dam in India?

(A) Bhakra Dam

(B) Kallanai Dam

(C) Koyna Dam

(D) Bhavani Sagar Dam


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 73. In which of the following years, first English newspaper from Calcutta was started?

(A) 1779

(B) 1780

(C) 1781

(D) 1782


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 74. Which of the followings is basis for calculating Indian Standard Time in terms of Longitude ?

(A) 82.5 °E

(B) 81.5°E

(C) 80.5 °E

(D) 79.5 °E


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 75. ‘Gateway of India’ was built to commemorate royal visit of ________________________.

(A) James VI

(B) Edward VII

(C) King George V

(D) William IV


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 76. Which of the following Viceroy of India announced the decision to divide Bengal in 1905?

(A) The Lord Chelmsford

(B) The Lord Hardinge

(C) The Lord Earl

(D) The Lord Curzon



Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 77. Two types of chemicals c1 and c2 are mixed in the ratio of 3:5 to produce first quality of paint. If the same chemicals are mixed in the ratio of 2:3, the second quality of paint is obtained. How many litres of first quality paint be mixed with 15 litres of second quality paint so that third quality of paint having two varieties in the ratio of 8:13 may be produced?

(A) 28

(B) 38

(C) 48                                 

(D) 58


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 78. A person covers 1/4 of a distance at a speed of 15 km/hour and 1/3 of distance at a speed of 30 km/hour. The remaining distance is covered by same person at a speed of 45 km/hour. What is the average speed to cover entire distance?

(A) 27

(B) 20

(C) 37

(D) 30


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 79. One hundred and twenty (120) friends ordered 3 types of shakes, Mango shake, Banana shake and Vanilla shake. 18 friends took all the three shakes while 60 friends took at least two shakes. Each shake cost Rs. 1,000 per unit. They were billed Rs. 1,70,000/-. Find out how many friends took exactly one shake and how many friends did not take any of the shakes?

(A) 30, 30

(B) 35, 25

(C) 45,15

(D) 32,28


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 80.   Complete the following series: 2, 3, 18, 115, 854, __________ 

(A) 7667

(B) 7767

(C) 7867

(D) 7967


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 81. Hari walks 40 meters towards east and turns to right and walks 20 meters. Then he turns to right and walks 18 meters. Again he turns to right and walks another 10 meters. After this he turns left and walks another 24 meters. In the end, he turns to right and walks 12 meters. In which direction, Hari is now facing?

(A) North

(B) South

(C) East

(D) West


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 82. Supervisor Khan has worked more night shifts in a row than Supervisor Ramesh, who has worked five. Supervisor Malik has worked 15 night shifts in a row, more than Supervisor Khan and Supervisor Ramesh combined. Supervisor Sham has worked eight night shifts in a row, less than Supervisor Khan. How many night shifts in a row has Supervisor Khan worked?

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 12



Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 83. Find the missing number (in place of question mark (?)) in the followings.














Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 84. There are 90 questions comprising 20 questions from English, 30 questions from Mathematics and 40 questions from General Knowledge in a test. Sakshi attempted 60%, 40% and 50% questions of English, Mathematics and General Knowledge respectively. All questions were attempted correctly. Passing marks were 60%. Each question carried one mark. Sakshi did not pass the test. How many more questions she would have answered correctly to pass the test?

(A) 8

(B) 9

(C) 10

(D) 11


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 85. A number is multiplied by three-fourth of itself to obtain a number of 15552. What is the number?

(A) 120

(B) 140

(C) 144

(D) 154


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 86. A student was asked to divide a number by 5 and add 15 to the quotient. He, however, first added 15 to the number and then divided it by 5 getting 148 as answer. What should have been the correct answer?

(A) 160

(B) 170

(C) 180

(D) 190


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 87. Reserpine is extracted from____________

(A) Rubia cordifolia

(B) Ocimum sanctum

(O Rauwolfia serpentina

(D) Nordostachys jatamamsi


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 88.   The seat of Bhrajaka pitta is__________________,

(A) Brihdantra

(B) Grahani

(C) Netra

(D) Twak


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 89.   False about skeletal muscles is___________________.

(A) Smallest functional unit is sarcomere

(B) Nuclei are peripherally placed

(C) Spindle shaped

(D) Sarcoplasmic reticulum is smooth endoplasmic reticulum



Q.NO: 90.   Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid?

(A) Leucine

(B) Methionine

(C) Alanine

(D) Tryptophan


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 91.   In which phase of the cell cycle are the chromosomes- inactive, condensed and not transcribed into messenger RNA?

(A) G1 phase

(B) S phase

(C) M phase

(D) G2 phase


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 92. Bishop’s score includes all, EXCEPT____________________.

(A) Cervical dilation

(B) Station of fetal head

(C) Consistency of Cervix

(D) Fetal Heart Rate (FHR)


Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 93. IgA Antibody acquired from mother through colostrum is an example of

(A) Naturally acquired active immunity

(B) Artificially acquired active immunity

(C) Naturally acquired passive immunity

(D) Artificially acquired passive immunity



Correct Answer:



Q.NO: 94. Maximum quantity of blood that can be extracted during Siravyadha is__________________.

(A) 1 Pala

(B) 10 Pala

(C) 1 Prastha

(D) 2 Prastha


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 95._____ A false perception that occurs in the absence of an actual sensory stimulus is known as____________.

(A) Hallucination

(B) Delusion

(C) Confabulation

(D) Illusion


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 96. What is the correct order of the stages of grief in Kubler-Ross Grief Cycle?

(A) Anger, Denial, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

(B) Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

(C) Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Denial, Acceptance

(D) Denial, Depression, Anger, Bargaining, Acceptance


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 97 As per the Biomedical Waste Management Principles, outdated medicines should be disposed in which of these bags?

(A) Yellow

(B) Black

(C) Red

(D) White translucent bags


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 98. Among the following, which is the safest mask for the ICU nurse during endotracheal suctioning in a mechanically ventilated patient having COVID infection?

(A) FFP-1 mask

(B) N95 mask

(C) Triple layered surgical mask

(D) Surgical mask placed over a cloth mask


Correct Answer:




Q.NO: 99. What is the proper technique with gravity tube feeding?

(A) Hang feeding bag 1 foot higher than the tube’s insertion point into the client

(B)        Administer next feeding only if there is less than 25 ml residual volume of previous feed

(C) Place the client in left lateral position

(D) Administer feeding directly from the refrigerator


Correct Answer:





Q.NO: 100. Which of the following IV fluid is isotonic Solution?

(A) 25% Dextrose

(B) Ringer Lactate

(C) 3% Normal saline

(D) 0.45% Normal saline


Correct Answer:



NHM Haryana CHO 2022 Question Paper & Answer Keys Download SET – A

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