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Q.1. Nurse teaches the patient to rotate the site of injection insulin. Which of the following site is inappropriate to use

  1. Things
  2. Abdomen
  3. Forearms
  4. Upper arms


Q.2 Effects of Nicotin will increase the body s secretion of

  1. Thyroxine
  2. Epinephrine
  3. Pancreatic Juices
  4. Histamme


Q.3. Therapeutic effect ofDigitahs IS to ^ the Heartbeat

  1. Dilate coronary arteries
  2. Strengthen the Heartbeat
  3. Decrease Arrythmias
  4. Decrease the electrical conductivity of the Heart


Q.4. Significant Nursing intewenh^ transporting

  1. Encourage ROM excercis
  2. Use wheelchair for transporting
  3. Give only fluid Diet
  4. Encourage the patient to choose activities to build endurance


Q.5. The part of the brain which controls heart rate and respiration

  1. Cerebral Cortex
  2. Thalamus
  3. Medulla Oblongata
  4. Diencephalon


Q.6. Claustrophobia means

  1. Fear of darkness
  2. Fear of being alone
  3. Fear of height
  4. Fear of closed spaces


Q.7. Which of the following term is an extra pyramidal symptom

  1. Rigidity
  2. Drymouth
  3. Photosensitivity
  4. Urinary retention


Q.8. The condition in which excessive fluid moves into the intra cellular space and all body fluid compartment expands

  1. Isotonic over hydration
  2. Hypotonic over hydration
  3. Hypertonic over hydration
  4. Hypertonic dehydration


Q.9. Hypernatremia is commonly detected in patients

  1. On Cortico steroids
  2. With Diarrhoea
  3. With fever
  4. On Digoxin


Q.10. Mr X is on diuretics and Digoxin. Recent Serum Potassium value 2.9mEq/l. Which of the undermentioned food item is essentially required for the patient?

  1. Milk
  2. Green leafy Vegetables
  3. Oranges
  4. Whole grain cereals


Q.11. Mr Y is on low sodium (3g) diet. Choose the most appropriate food item from the under mentioned list

  1. Bread with Jam
  2. Cheese
  3. Banana
  4. Tomato ketchup


Q.12. Milk is a rich source of

  1. Vitamin A, D &B2
  2. Vitamin C&K
  3. Vitamin E
  4. Vitamin B6 & B12


Q.13. Indication of low-residue low fiber diet is

  1. Asymptomatic Diverticular Disease
  2. Constipation
  3. Inflammatory Bowel Disease
  4. Renal Failure


Q.14. Mr P was brought to the causality following accidental fall from a tree. He was transferred on a trolley. Suddenly the nurse noticed cessation of breathing and unresponsiveness. The pr technique to open his air way is

  1. Head tilt-Chin lift manoeuvre
  2. Jaw thrust manoeuvre
  3. Abdominal Thrust manoeuvre
  4. Ambu ventilation


Q.15. Choose the inappropriate action of the heath care provider while performing BLS.

  1. Determine unconsciousness
  2. Open Airway
  3. Defibrillate
  4. Auscultate for heart sounds


Q.16. What is the approximate haemoglobin in a normal newborn at birth?

  1. 10-12 g/100ml of blood
  2. 14 g/100mlof blood
  3. 15-20 g/100mlof blood
  4.  21-25 g/100ml of blood


Q.17. In a Post-operative patient Staphylococcus aureus found normally on the skin can cause

  1. Cold sore
  2. Pneumonia
  3. Wound infection
  4. Urinary tract infection


Q.18. Braden scale is the assessment tool used for predicting the severity of the

  1. Brain oedema
  2. Pressure Ulcer
  3. Myocardial ischemia
  4. Cerebral ischemia


Q.19. What is the maximum storage life of platelet concentrate?

  1. 3 months
  2. 2 weeks
  3. 30 days
  4. 3 days


Q.20. What do you mean by pulse deficit?

  1. Missing of a pulse in normal pulse rhythm
  2. Difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressures
  3. Difference between pulse in sitting and standing position
  4. Difference between apical and radial pulse


Q.21. When a person is infected with HIV, antibodies can be detectable in the blood

  1. Any time after the exposure
  2. 48 hours after the exposure
  3. 2 weeks after the exposure
  4. 3 months after the exposure


Q.22. The nerve which supplies diaphragm

  1. Phrenic nerve
  2. Sciatic nerve
  3. Trigeminal nerve
  4. Accessory


Q.23. Cushing’s triad is

  1. High BP,edema,oliguria
  2. Slow pulse, abnormal breathing pattern, high BP
  3. Hypoxia, increased temperature, tachypnea
  4. Slow pulse, hypoxia, pupillary asymmetry


Q.24. Which vein is the most common source of thrombi that become a Pulmonary Embolism?

  1. Great Saphenous Vein
  2. Ilio-Femoral vein
  3. Popliteal Vein
  4. PosteriorTibial Vein


Q.25. Arterial blood gas result showing PH 7.45 and PCO2. 30inm of Hg and HCO3.22 MEq / L B. Respiratory alkalosis compensated

  1. Normal
  2. Respiratory alkalosis compensated
  3. Respiratory alkalosis
  4. Respiratory acidosis compensated


Q.26. While caring patient with DVT which among the following is most suitable.

  1. Out of bed activities as desired
  2. Bed rest with affected extremity flat
  3. Bed rest with elevation of the affected extrémity
  4. Bed rest with affected extremity in a dependent position


Q.27. A nurse is caring for a patient with chest tube. Accidently the tube got disconnected. What will the nurse do first?

  1. Call the physician
  2. Place the tube in a bottle of sterile water
  3. Immediately replace the chest tube system
  4. Place a sterile dressing over the disconnection site


Q.28. On detecting the transfusion reaction the most significant action to be performed by the nurse is

  1. Send a fresh sample of the patient’s blood to the Blood Bank
  2. Place the Patient in Propped up Position
  3. Start a new I/V line and Remove the existing line
  4. Start Oxygen


Q.29. A patient is brought to OPD with diabetic keto acidosis. In the acute phase the priority action is to

  1. Administer sodium bicarbonate
  2. Administer 50% glucose TV
  3. Administer insulin I/V
  4. Monitor the ECG


Q.30. A patient is in sinus bradycardia with heart rate 45/mt complaining dizziness. His BP is 80/60mm of Hg. Which of the following should be the priority intervention?

  1. Defibrillation
  2. Administer digoxin
  3. Continue monitor
  4. Prepare for transcutaneous Pacing


Q.31. When a patient is on continuous bladder drainage, the bag should not be raised above the hip level

  1. Because the bag may fall down
  2. Because the catheter may be pulled out
  3. To avoid return flow of urine in to the urinary bladder
  4. Because it may cause bleeding


Q.32. Broca’s aphasia refers to

  1. Inability to understand spoken language
  2. Fluent nonsensical speech
  3. Fluent speech
  4. Inability to express ide^


Q.33. Fever, head ache and nuchal rigidity are classic symptoms in

  1. Raised intracranial pressure
  2. Alzheimer’s disease
  3. Brain abscess
  4. Meningitis


Q.34. The region of brain which is responsible for higher mental functions and decision making is  located in

  1. Parietal lobe
  2. Temporal lobe
  3. Occipital lobe
  4. Frontal lobe


Q.35. Diagnosis of Pulmonary embolism is confirmed by

  1. PositiveTroponin T
  2. Positive pro BNP
  3. Positive D-dimer
  4. Characteristic ECG


Q.36. After clamping the Umbilical cord the new bom starts to breathe in

  1. Sminutes
  2. 3minutes
  3. <30seconds
  4. 1 minute


Q.37. ORS solution does not contain

  1. Sodium Chloride
  2. Potassium Chloride
  3. Magnesium sulphate
  4. Sodium bicarbonate


Q.38. The word “cold chain” is the process used for

  1. Prevention of Fever
  2. Streptococcal prophylaxis
  3. Prevention of YAP
  4. Preservation of vaccine


Q.39. Wallace’s rule of nine denotes

  1. Nine ways of assessment of Arterial Blood Gas
  2. Assessment of the severity of Bums
  3. Standard management of shock
  4. Systematic assessment of Stroke


Q.40. Normal daily requirement of Sodium for an Adult

  1. 10-15gms
  2. 20-25gms
  3. 80-120gms
  4. 2-4gms


Q.41. Which of the following is not a cardiac supportive device?

  1. Intra AorticBaloon pump
  2. Cardio pulmonary Bypass
  3. Pacemaker
  4. Bolter monitor


Q.42. What is Pulse Pressure?

  1. Difference between Apical and Distal pulse
  2. Difference between pulmonary and Aortic pressure
  3. Difference between systolic and Diastolic pressures
  4. Difference between Jugular venous pressure and Left Atreal pressure


Q.43. The antidote for Heparin is

  1. Desmopressin
  2. Protamine sulphate
  3. Nadriparine
  4. Warfarin


Q.44. When ventricular fibrillation occurs, the first action to be initiated is

  1. Administer oxygen
  2. Defibrillate the patient
  3. Initiate CPCR
  4. Prop up the patient


Q.45. Which of the following is an antiarrhythmic drug?

  1. Altiplase
  2. Amilodipine
  3. Amiodarone
  4. Atropine


Q.46. Which artery supplies blood to the anterior, wall of the heart

  1. Circumflex artery
  2. Internal mammary artery
  3. Left anterior descending artery
  4. Right coronary artery


Q.47.Recommended practice of collecting sample for culture and sensitivity from an in dwelling urinary catheter is

  1. Pour from the urobag
  2. Disconnect catheter and collect “
  3. Recatheterise and collect urine .
  4. Aspirate with a sterile syringe and needle


Q.48. WHO evolved “DOTS” for the effective control of

  1. Leprosy
  2. Tuberculosis
  3. Poliomyelitis
  4. Malaria


Q.49. APGAR Score of a normal healthy new bom baby is

  1. 5-6
  2. 6-8
  3. 3-5
  4. 8-10


Q.50. A device that translates one form of energy to another

  1. Transducer
  2. Manometer
  3. Barometer
  4. Invertor


Q.51. Mr D is admitted with multiple traumas. He requires rapid blood transfusion of several units of blood. The most essential device required to prevent cardiac hythmia is

  1. Pulse Oxymetry
  2. Cardiac monitor
  3. Infusion controller
  4. Blood warming device


Q.52. Patient needs 30 mEq of Potassium Chloride added in 500ml of Normal saline to be administered over ten hours. The Drug is available as 40 mEq in 20 ml ampoule. How will the nurse prepare the drug?

  1. 30ml potassium chloride/500ml normal saline
  2. 12ml potassium chloride/500ml normal saline
  3. 14 ml potassium chloride/500ml normal saline
  4. 15ml potassium chloride/500ml normal saline


Q.53. Physician prescribed 1000ml normal saline to infuse over 8 hours (one ml=15 drops),The nurse sets the flow rate at

  1. 40 drops/minute
  2. 28 drops/minute
  3. 3 drops/minute
  4. 36 drops/minute


Q.54. Physician’s prescription reads Levothyroxinel50mcgdaily orally. The drug is available as 0. Img tablet. How many tablets are required daily

  1. 2 tablets
  2. 1.5 tablets
  3. 1 tablet
  4. 3 tablets


Q.55. Mr. P’s Surgery is postponed after seeing the blood report. Which of the following reports is abnom

  1. Hb-11 9 g/dL
  2. Serum Sodium- 140 mEq/ L
  3. Platelet^-210,000/mm
  4. Serum Creatinin-3mg/dL


Q.56. While inspecting the abdominal surgical wound, nurse noticed wound evisceration. The immediate steps in nursing management include all except

  1. provide pressure dressings
  2. Prepare for wound closure.
  3. Inform the Surgeon
  4. Make the patient lie down in supine position


Q.57. The nurse has to instruct the patient to withhold the prescribed dose of tab digoxin if the patient experiences .

  1. Arthralgia
  2. Chest pain
  3. Blurred vision
  4. Increased urinary output


Q.58. If a child develops tonic-clonic seizure, the most appropriate action expected from the nurse is to

  1. Insert airway
  2. Administer oxygen by mask
  3. Use a paddled tongue blade
  4. Position the child laterally; head down


Q.59. The platelet count of a four year old child suffering from leukaemia on chemo therapy is 29500cells/mm^ Based on the lab report, which intervention the nurse will document to include in the nursing care plan?

  1. Monitor closely the signs of infection
  2. Monitor temperatureQ4H
  3. Isolate the child to protect from infection
  4. Use a soft small tooth brush for mouth care


Q.60. Recommended practice is to complete blood products infusion to a paediatric patient within 4 to 6 hours in order to lessen the risk of

  1. Bacterial contamination
  2. Thrombus formation
  3. Febrile reaction
  4. Platelet aggregation


Q.61. Artificial pulse generator is indicated for the treatment of

  1. Sinus tachycardia
  2. Atrial fibrillation .
  3. Complete heart block
  4. Supra ventricular tachycardia


Q.62. When performing cardiac compression on an adult client, it is essential to exert vertical downward pressure, which depresses, the lower sternum at least _.

  1. ‘/2 to Va inch
  2. Va to 1 inch
  3. 1 to 14 inches
  4. 114 to 2 inches


Q.63. Respiratory complications are common in patients with Myasthenia Gravis because of

  1. Narrowed airways
  2. Impaired immunity
  3. Ineffective coughing
  4. Viscosity of secretions


Q.64. The antedote of Carbon monoxide is .

  1. Inj. Atropine Sulphate
  2. Vinegar
  3. Calcium Gluconate
  4. Oxygen


Q.65. A patient receiving spironolactone to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should a nurse provide

  1. Eat foods high in potassium
  2. Take daily potassium supplement
  3. Discontinue sodium restriction
  4. Avoid salt substitute


Q.66. Which of the following nursing interventions should be instituted the day after surgery for the patient who had undergone pneumonectomy?

  1. Provide range of motion exercises
  2. Strip chest tubes every hour
  3. Force fluids to 3500cc/day
  4. Monitor intermittent Positive pressure breathing


Q.67. A nurse is removing an indwelling urinary catheter which of the following action is appropriate

  1. Wear sterile gloves
  2. Cut the lumen of the balloon
  3. Document the time of removal
  4. Position the patient in the left side


Q.68 A patient with Myasthenia Gravis is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of respiratory distress. The patient’s condition worsened and he is likely to end up in

  1. Metabolic acidosis
  2. Metabolic alkalosis
  3. Respiratory acidosis
  4. Respiratory alkalosis


Q.69. Furosemide is of drug

  1. Thiazide diuretic
  2. Osmotic diuretic
  3. loop diuretic
  4. Potassium sparing diuretic


Q.70. Which of the following vitamins is used to enhance absorption of Calcium

  1. Vitamin E
  2. Vitamin D
  3. Vitamin B
  4. Vitamin A


Q.71. In endotracheal suctioning the nurse must always remember to

  1. Give 100% oxygen before suctioning
  2. Give propped up position before suctioning
  3. Give R/T feed before suctioning
  4. Insert the catheter until the cough reflex is stimulated


Q.72. Forceps needed for intubation

  1. Thump forceps
  2. Magill’s forceps
  3. Artery forceps
  4. Mosquito forceps


Q.73. Gingival hyperplasia is a side effect associated with this anti seizure drug

  1. Valprovate
  2. Phenobarbitone
  3. Diazepam
  4. Phenytoin


Q.74 .is a congenital acyanotic cardiac disease.

  1. Tetrology of Fallot
  2. Transposition of great arteries
  3. Atreal Septal defect
  4. Pulmonary atresia


Q.75. Mr K is on Tab Thyroxine lOOmg daily. The nurse instructs the patient to take the medicine daily

  1. Along with food
  2. Half an hour after food
  3. On empty stomach in the morning
  4. At bed time with glass of milk


Q.76. Choose the wrong statement related to storage and disposal of biomedical waste

  1. Infected plastics are collected in red containers
  2. Infected non plastic items are collected in green bags
  3. Cytotoxic drugs are collected in black container with cyto- toxic label
  4. All general waste are incinerated


Q.77. One of the Common manifestations of hyperglycaemia is

  1. Tremors
  2. Anorexia
  3. Hot & Dry Skin
  4. Muscle cramps


Q.78. Any disorder due to defective or faulty nutrition is called

  1. Dystrophy
  2. Dyspepsia
  3. Dysphagia
  4. Dystonia


Q.79. Contact precautions are essential in preventing the under mentioned diseases except

  1. H1Nl Influenza
  2. Wound infection
  3. Conjunctivitis
  4. Hepatitis


Q.80. Choose the false statement

  1. Viral Meningitis is transmitted by Droplet infection
  2. Measles is an air born infection
  3. Tuberculosis infection can cause pulmonary embolism
  4. Hepatitis A is transmitted through food and water



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