SREE CHITRA TIRUNAL INSTITUTE FOR MEDICAL SCIENCES & TECHNOLOGY
WRITTEN TEST FOR THE POST OF STAFF NURSE 2013
Question Paper & Answer Keys Download
Nursing Officer Question Paper 2013
Q.1) While giving Cardiopulmonary resuscitation to an adult, the recommended rate of external chest compression per minute is
Correct Answer: 100
Q.2) The ‘p’ wave in the EGG represents
(A) Depolarization of Atria.
(B) Repolarisation of Atria.
(C) Contraction of Atria.
(D) Relaxation of Atria.
Correct Answer: Depolarization of Atria.
Q.3) Which one of the following is not a thrombolytic drug?
(C) Tissue Plasminogen Activator
Correct Answer: Heparin
Q.4) Which one of the following is less likely to be given to a patient having acute Myocardial Infarction?
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Q.5) Which one of the following arrhythmias needs to be defibrillated immediately?
(A) Ventricular Asystole
(B) Atrlal fibrillation
(C) Ventricular fibrillation
(D) Pulseless Electrical Activity
Correct Answer: Ventricular fibrillation
Q.6) The nurse is preparing to administer 0.1 mg of Digoxin intravenously. The available concentration is 0.5mg in 2ml . How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
(A) 0.5 ml
(B) 0.4 ml
(C) 0.3 ml
(D) 0.2 ml
Correct Answer: 0.4 ml
Q.7) Which of the following statements is true regarding endotracheal suctioning?
(A) Suction vacuum is set as high as possible.
(B) Normal Saline should be instilled prior to the procedure.
(C) Most patients do not need hyper oxygenation during the procedure.
(D) Suction time should not exceed 10-15 seconds.
Correct Answer: Suction time should not exceed 10-15 seconds.
Q.8) Immediate Post procedure care for the cardiac catheterization patient includes all of the following except
(A) Continually monitoring heart rate.
(B) Monitoring platelet count
(C) Monitoring hemostasis.
(D) Monitoring coagulation status.
Correct Answer: Monitoring platelet count
Q.9) The onset of action in minutes, after intravenous administration of Furosemide (Lasix) is
Correct Answer: 5
Q.10) The drug of choice in Status epilepticus is_____________ .
Correct Answer: Lorazepam
Q.11) Insulin is not given by mouth because it is
(A) Excreted before being absorbed
(B) Absorbed too slowly
(C) Too irritating to stomach and mucous membrane.
(D) Rendered inactive
Correct Answer: Rendered inactive
Q.12) Which one of the following is wrong about Thrombolytic therapy? It is
(A) a treatment modality for acute ischemic stroke
(B) an emergency treatment in cerebral aneurysm
(C) most effective if given within 3 hours of onset of symptoms
(D) usually given after a CT Scan of brain
Correct Answer: an emergency treatment in cerebral aneurysm
Q.13) Interventions to decrease increased intracranial pressure include all of the following except
(C) Inj. Dexamethasone
(D) Neutral neck position
Correct Answer: Neutral neck position
Q.14) The preferred position to prevent CSF leak after pituitary tumor excision via transsphenoidal route is
(D) Left lateral
Correct Answer: Supine
Q.15) If a patient experienced a stroke that damaged the hypothalamus, the nurse would anticipate that he has problems with?
(A) body temperature control
(B) balance and equilibrium
(C) visual acuity
(D) thinking and reasoning
Correct Answer: body temperature control
Q.16) The four body fluids that have been implicated in the transmission of HIV are
(A) Blood, saliva, semen, vaginal fluid
(B) Tears, saliva, urine, sweat
(C) Blood, semen, vaginal fluid, breast milk
(D) Urine, semen, vaginal fluid, breast milk
Correct Answer: Blood, semen, vaginal fluid, breast milk
Q.17) A frequent side effect of Furosemide is that it
(A) Promotes electrolyte disturbances.
(B) Allows the kidney to retain hydrogen ions.
(C) Permits the kidney to conserve potassium.
(D) Promotes conservation of calcium.
Correct Answer: Promotes electrolyte disturbances.
Q.18) Fresh Frozen plasma (FFP) is administered to replace
(A) Clotting factors
Correct Answer: Clotting factors
Q.19) A patient who has been experiencing angina has a new prescription for Nitroglycerin. Which of the following should the nurse include in teaching about the side effects of Nitroglycerin?
(A) Head ache
(B) Shortness of breath
Correct Answer: Head ache
Q.20) While caring for a patient with acute pulmonary oedema which of the following is not advisable?
(A) IV Fluids
(C) Propped up position
(D) Reducing anxiety
Correct Answer: IV Fluids
Q.21) A nurse should teach a patient to withhold the prescribed dose of digoxin if the patient experiences…………………………..
(B) chest pain
(C) visual disturbance
(D) increased urinary output
Correct Answer: visual disturbance
Q.22) When a patient is receiving anti-coagulants the nursing care should include observation for………….
(D) chest pain
Correct Answer: epistaxis
Q.23) A nurse should infuse blood products to a patient within 4 to 6 hours in order to lessen the risk of ……………….
(A) bacterial contamination
(B) thrombus formation
(C) febrile reaction
(D) platelet aggregation
Correct Answer: bacterial contamination
Q.24) The nurse in the coronary care unit should observe for one of the most common acute complications of myocardial infarction which is……………………..
(B) Anaphalatic shock
(C) Cardiac disrythmia
(D) Cardiac enlargement
Correct Answer: Cardiac disrythmia
Q.25) The purpose of water in water seal chamber of a chest drainage system is to………..
(A) foster removal of chest secretion
(B) prevent the entrance of air into the pleural cavity
(C) facilitate emptying of bloody drainage from the chest
(D) decrease the danger of sudden change of pressure within the tube
Correct Answer: prevent the entrance of air into the pleural cavity
Q.26) Which of the following drug is to be given when warfarin overdose is observed
(B) Vitamin K
(C) Protamine sulphate
(D) Iron -dextran
Correct Answer: Vitamin K
Q.27) Mr X developed Quadripiegia following a diving accident. The most likely cause is
(A) C4 injury
(C) L3 injury
Correct Answer: C4 injury
Q.28) Which of the following clinical manifestations would support a nursing diagnosis to decreased cardiac output?
(A) Cool, moist skin
(B) Bouncing peripheral pulses
(C) Increased urinary output
(D) Diminished breath sounds
Correct Answer: Cool, moist skin
Q.29) When performing cardiac compression on an adult client, the nurse is aware that it is essential to exert vertical downward pressure, which depresses, the lower sternum at least:
(A) ½ to ¾ inch
(B) ¾ to 1 inch
(C) 1 to ½ inches
(D) 1½ to 2 inches
Correct Answer: 1½ to 2 inches
Q.30) What should be the air pressure in operating rooms in relation to the outside air pressure?
(D) No relation
Correct Answer: Greater
Q.31) All of these are common indications for indwelling urinary catheters in healthcare settings EXCEPT
(A) Urethral or pelvic floor trauma.
(B) Palliative care during end of life.
(C) Management of urinary retention and obstruction.
(D) Prevention of wound deterioration due to urinary incontinence.
Correct Answer: Palliative care during end of life.
Q.32) Ventilator Associated Pneumonia prevention bundle includes all EXCEPT
(A) Semi recumbent position
(B) Prophylactic antibiotic therapy
(C) Daily sedation vacation
(D) Frequent drainage of subglottic secretion
Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotic therapy
Q.33) Ventilator Associated Pneumonia is defined as Pneumonia that develops
(A) after five days of intuation and ventilation
(B) after 48 hours of intubation and ventilation
(C) any time after intubation
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: after 48 hours of intubation and ventilation
Q.34) World Hand Hygiene Day is observed on
(A) 5th May
(C) 1st December
(D) 30th October
Correct Answer: 5th May
Q.35) Most important step in clinical waste management is
Correct Answer: Segregation
Q.36) To achieve high-level disinfection in 2% glutaraldehyde, soak an instrument for
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 20 minutes
(C) 15 minutes
(D) One hour
Correct Answer: 20 minutes
Q.37) Select ‘the weaning mode with ventilator’ from the following
Correct Answer: SIMV
Q.38) The single most effective means for preventing healthcare associated infection is
(A) Periodic Fumigation
(B) Prophylactic Antibiotic therapy
(C) Use of personal protective equipment
(D) Hand Hygiene
Correct Answer: Hand Hygiene
Q.39) The recommended initial monophasic energy dose for cardioversion of Ventricular Fibrillation is
Correct Answer: 360
Q.40) Lumbar puncture is done at the level of
Correct Answer: L3-L4
Q.41) The nurse is caring for a patient with raised intra cranial pressure. Which of the following trends in vital signs is applicable here?
(A) Increasing temperature, increasing pulse, increasing respiration, decreasing blood pressure
(B) Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respiration, increasing blood pressure
(C) Decreasing temperature, decreasing pulse, increasing respiration, decreasing blood pressure
(D) Decreasing temperature, increasing pulse, decreasing respiration, increasing blood pressure
Correct Answer: Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respiration, increasing blood pressure
Q.42) In autoclaving the water temperature can be raised to much higher degree by—
(A) Adding chemicals
(B) Using filtered water
(C) Increasing pressure.
(D) All of the above.
Correct Answer: Increasing pressure.
Q.43) The nurse is assessing the adaptation of the patient to changes in the functional status after a stroke. The nurse determines that the patient is adapting most successfully if the patient
(A) gets angry with family if they interrupt a task
(B) Experiences bouts of depression and irritability
(C) has difficulty with using modified feeding utensils
(D) Consistently uses adaptive equipment’s in dressing self
Correct Answer: Consistently uses adaptive equipment’s in dressing self
Q.44) The nurse would suspect a patient after craniotomy is developing meningitis if the patient exhibits
(A) Negative kernig sign
(B) absence of nuchal rigidity
(C) positive brudinski sign
(D) Glasgow coma scale of 15
Correct Answer: positive brudinski sign
Q.45) Antibiotic prophylaxis before surgery is to be administered
(A) 120 mts prior to incision
(B) 60 mts prior to incision
(C) Just before incision
(D) 120 mts prior to shifting patient to OT
Correct Answer: 60 mts prior to incision
Q.46) The preferred position in which a patient with increased intracranial pressure to be placed is
(D) Head tilted to 300
Correct Answer: Head tilted to 300
Q.47) A nurse has received the patient assignment for the day. Which among the following patient should the nurse assess first?
(A) The patient who has a nasogastric tube attached to intermittent suction
(B) The patient who has to receive subcutaneous insulin before breakfast
(C) The patient who is 2 days post-operative and is complaining of incissional pain
(D) The patient has a blood glucose level of 50 mg per dilution and complaints of blurred vision
Correct Answer: The patient who has a blood glucose level of 50 mg per dilution and complaints of blurred vision
Q.48) MRI study is prescribed for a patient with a suspected brain tumour. The nurse implements which action to prepare the patient for this test?
(A) IV mannitol for 6 hours before the procedure
(B) Shaves the groin for insertion of femoral catheter
(C) Removes all metal-containing objects from the patient
(D) Instructs the patient in inhalation technique for the administration of a radio isotope
Correct Answer: Removes all metal-containing objects from the patient
Q.49) The nurse is teaching a patient who has iron deficiency anemia about food she should include in her diet. The nurse determines that the patient understands the dietary modification if she selects which of the following menu.
(C) Boiled Rice
(D) Dark green leafy vegetables
Correct Answer: Dark green leafy vegetables
Q.50) A patient has experienced acute pulmonary embolism. The nurse assesses for which symptom which is most commonly reported
(A) Hot flushed feeling
(B) Sudden chills and fever suddenly
(C) Chest pain that occurs
(D) Occipital headache
Correct Answer: Chest pain that occurs
Q.51) A nurse performs the admission assessment for a patient with diagnosis of tuberculosis. The nurse receives the results of which diagnostic test that will confirm the diagnosis
(A) Chest X-ray
(C) Sputum examination
(D) Tuberculin test
Correct Answer: Sputum examination
Q.52) A patient is taking Isoniazid for one and a half months. The patient complaints of numbness, paresthesia and tinkling in the extremities. Here the patient is experiencing
(B) Peripheral neuritis
(C) Small blood vessel spasm
(D) Impaired peripheral circulation
Correct Answer: Peripheral neuritis
Q.53) A patient has been started on long term therapy with Rifampicin. The nurse teaches the patient that the medication
(A) Should always be taken with food or antacid
(B) Should be double dosed if one dose is forgotten
(C) Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine and faeces
(D) May be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months
Correct Answer: Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine and faeces
Q.54) 1000 ml of normal saline is to be infused over 12 hours. The drop factor is 15 drops/ml. The flow rate should be set at how many drops / minute?
(A) 10 drops/minute
(B) 15 drops/minute
(C) 21 drops / minute
(D) 30 drops/minute
Correct Answer: 21 drops / minute
Q.55) The nurse determines that a patient is having a transfusion reaction. After the transfusion is stopped which action should immediately be taken?
(A) Remove the l/V line
(B) Run a solution of 5%
(C) Run normal saline
(D) Obtain a culture of the tip of the dextrose catheter
Correct Answer: Remove the l/V line
Q.56) Which of the following is the most prevalent risk factor in the development of Catheter Associated Urinary Tract Infections?
(A) Female gender
(B) Increasing age
(C) Prolonged catheterization
(D) Catheter-care violations
Correct Answer: Prolonged catheterization
Q.57) Kussmaul’s breathing is manifested as
(A) regular but abnormally slow Respiration
(B) Orthopnoeic with excessive perspiration
(C) Normal with rapid rate
(D) Abnormally deep with rapid rate Respiration
Correct Answer: Abnormally deep with rapid rate Respiration
Q.58) Triage means
Correct Answer: prioritizing
Q.59) Cine Angiography Dye contains
Correct Answer: Iodine
Q.60) When performing Heimlich maneuver on a conscious adult patient the Rescuever delivers inward and upward thrust specifically
(A) Above the umbilicus
(B) At th level of xyphoid process
(C) Over the victims mid umbilical area
(D) below the Xiphoid process and above the umbilicus
Correct Answer: below the Xiphoid process and above the umbilicus
Q.61) Common manifestation of acute left ventricular failure is………
(A) Dependent edema
(B) Dyspnoea and cough with frothy sputum
(C) Increased Urine output
(D) Sudden loss of consciousness.
Correct Answer: Dyspnoea and cough with frothy sputum
Q.62) CPR Guideline (2010) recommends that on diagnosis of cardiac arrest the first action to be initiated is
(A) give two breaths and initiate chest compressions and respiration at 30:2 ratio
(B) intiate chest compressions and respiration at 30:2 ratio
(C) Start mouth to mouth respiration
(D) give 4 breaths and start chest compressions and respiration at 30:2 ratio
Correct Answer: intiate chest compressions and respiration at 30:2 ratio
Q.63) Ideal position to prevent aspiration during nasogastric tube feeding is…………
(A) Side lying position
(B) Head end 30 degree elevated
(C) Head down position
(D) Supine position
Correct Answer: Head end 30 degree elevated
Q.64) A typical side effect of statin is
(D) Nasal Congestion
Correct Answer: Myopathy
Q.65) The route of transmission of MRSA is
(A) Sharing of instruments
(B) Blood transfusion
(C) Re-use of disposable items.
(D) Hand carriage
Correct Answer: Hand carriage
Q.66) When a child is admitted with diarrhea, the nurse has to anticipate dehydration and
(A) Urinary retention
(B) Pulmonary Congestion
(C) hyperactive reflexes
(D) Electrolyte imbalance
Correct Answer: Electrolyte imbalance
Q.67) Patient on anticoagulant drugs reports bleeding gum, black tarry stools. It is a manifestation of………….
(A) Drug resistance
(B) Drug sensitivity
(C) Irregular intake of the prescribed dose
(D) Drug over dose
Correct Answer: Drug over dose
Q.68) The storage temperature of whole blood is
(A) 2-6 Degree Celsius
(B) 6-10 Degree Celsius
(C) <2 Degree Celsius
(D) 10-15 Degree Celsius
Correct Answer: 2-6 Degree Celsius
Q.69) The salient features of nurses records include the all following except
(A) Written with Ink
(B) Clear and concise
(C) Counter signed by the doctor
(D) Should not have overwriting
Correct Answer: Counter signed by the doctor
Q.70) Which of the following sites is not suitable for IM injections?
(A) Upper outer quadrant of the buttocks
(B) Lateral aspects of thighs
(C) Outer aspects of shoulder
(D) Medial aspects of thigh
Correct Answer: Medial aspects of thigh
Q.71) The Enteric precautions to be used while caring a child with Gastro enteritis include the following except.
(A) Place the child in a private
(B) Wearing Gloves
(C) Wearing mask
(D) Wearing Gown
Correct Answer: Wearing mask
Q.72) The recommended technique to test the gag reflex is
(A) Examine the mouth and throat for excessive saliva
(B) Touch the back of the throat with a tongue depressor
(C) Observe the throat muscle for flaccid paralysis
(D) give a spoon of water for swallowing
Correct Answer: Touch the back of the throat with a tongue depressor
Q.73) Patient developed seizure while sitting in the chair. The first action the nurse must do is
(A) Lift the patient into the bed
(B) Ease the patient to the floor
(C) Restrain body movements
(D) Insert an airway into the mouth.
Correct Answer: Ease the patient to the floor
Q.74) Choose the false statement related to medical Imaging Technology.
(A) X rays are sufficient to detect fine details of objects like bone and lungs
(B) CT scan has increased ability to see the soft tissues
(C) Nuclear magnetic resonance has no Radiation risk
(D) Echo cardiogram is a radio isotope imaging
Correct Answer: Echo cardiogram is a radio isotope imaging
Q.75) A 10 year old child is admitted with acute exacerbation of asthma. Which of the following findings indicates worsening of the condition?
(A) Warm, dry skin
(B) Drop in SPO2
(C) Pulse 90 beats/min
(D) Respiration 18breaths/min
Correct Answer: Drop in SPO2
Q.76) A mother of six year old child with type 1 Diabetes informs the nurse that child appears sick and urine is positive for ketone bodies. The most appropriate instruction to the mother is
(A) Hold the next dose of insulin
(B) Come to the hospital immediately
(C) Administer an additional dose of insulin and take rest
(D) Encourage the child to drink calorie free drinks and bring the child to the hospital
Correct Answer: Encourage the child to drink calorie free drinks and bring the child to the hospital
Q.77) The indiscriminate Oxygen therapy for a premature newborn can lead to
(C) Opthalmia neonatorum
(D) Retrolental fibroplasia
Correct Answer: Retrolental fibroplasia
Q.78) Endotracheal intubation via oral is preferred to nasal intubation because
(A) Nasal intubation promotes sinusitis and block sinus outflow
(B) It is more convenient for intubation
(C) Easy for endotracheal suctioning
(D) It is more comfortable for the patient
Correct Answer: Nasal intubation promotes sinusitis and block sinus outflow
Q.79) Normal CO2 level in blood is
(A) 40 -50 mmHg
(B) 35-40 mmHg
(C) 25- 50 mmHg
(D) 30 50mmHg
Correct Answer: 35-40 mmHg
Q.80) Surgical Time Out is a____________________ measure.
(B) Infection Control
Correct Answer: Safety
Nursing Officer Question Paper 2013 & Answer Keys Download