BHU Staff Nurse Question Paper & Answer key 2018 pdf

Question complete all

ALL INDIA INSTITUTE OF ME SCREENING TEST FOR THE POST

DATE OF EXAM: 29.09.2019.

Q.1. Nasal Cannula is used for:

1. Oxygen administration
2. Clearance of secretions
3. Feeding milk
4. Both (1) & (2)

Correct Answer: Oxygen administration

Q.2. Which drug is given through nebulization as well as the intravenous route?

1. Salbutamal
2. Budesonide
3. 3% NaCl
4. Hydrocartisone

Correct Answer: 3% NaCl

Q.3. Phototherapy is used for the treatment of:

1. Cyanosis
2. Jaundice
3. Diarrhoea
4. Eczema

Correct Answer: Jaundice

Q.4. Exclusive breastfeeding is given up to :

1. 4 months
2. 6 months
3. 9 months
4. 12 months

Correct Answer: 6 months

Q.5. A loose cuff of BP Instrument gives :

1. Accurate reading
2. Falsely higher reading
3. Falsely lower reading BP
4. No effect on reading

 Correct Answer: Falsely higher reading

Q.6. Diuretics are given at what time?

1. Morning
2. Noon
3. Evening
4. Night

 Correct Answer: Morning

Q.7. Mattress used for Patient care should be :

1. Thick and Hard
2. Thin and Soft.
3. Thick and Firm
4. Thin and Elastic

Correct Answer: Thick and Firm

Q.8. The body part to be pressed after intramuscular injection with which substance?

1. Dry Cotton Swab
2. Wet Cotton Swab
3. Spirit Cotton Swab
4. Povidone-Iodine Cotton Swab

Correct Answer: Dry Cotton Swab

Q.9. Subcutaneous injection is given at which angle?

1. 15°
2. 30°
3. 45°
4. 90°

Correct Answer: 45°

Q.10. Which is incorrectly matched in relation to temperature of solution?

1. Cleaning purpose – 104°F
2. Thermal effect – 110-115°F
3. Reducing temperature – 80-90°F
4. Gastric lavage – 70-80°F

Correct Answer: Reducing temperature – 80-90°F

Q.11. Pre-operative preparation of skin is done by application of which substan ?

1. Hydrogen peroxide
2. Mupirocin
3. 2% Gluteraldehyde
4. 70% Alcohol

Correct Answer: 70% Alcohol

Q.12. Temperature of water for ‘Sitz Bath’ is :

1. 30-34°C
2. 37-39°C
3. 43-46°C
4. 48

Correct Answer: 43-46°C

Q.13. ICD-X classification’ is used in :

1. Central Sterile Supply Department (CSSD)
2. Operation Theatre
3. Medical Record Department
4. Blood Bank

Correct Answer: Medical Record Department

Q14. Which substance is used in Fumigation ?

1. Potassium Permanganate
2. Hydrogen Peroxide
3. Bleaching Powder
4. Povidone Idoine

Correct Answer: Potassium Permanganate

Q.15. Human anatornical organs are kept in which coloured container in Biomedical Waste Disposal ?

1. Red
2. Yellow
3. White
4. Blue

Correct Answer: Yellow

Q.16. Sodium flupride vial is used for measurement of which substance in blood ?

1. Glucose
2. urea
3. Hb1 Ac
4. Hematocrit

Correct Answer: Glucose

Q.17. Enema is given in which position of patient?

1. Supine
2. Prone
3. Right lateral
4. Left lateral

Correct Answer: Left lateral

Q.18. Normally Intercostal drainage tube is kept for how many days?

1. 1-2
2. 3-5
3. 5-10
4. 10-15

Correct Answer: 3-5

Q.19. Which fluid is given in ’hypovolemic shock’?

1. 5% Dextrose
2. 0.9% NaCl
3. 5% Dextrose NaCl
4. 10% Dextrose

Correct Answer: 0.9% NaCl

Q.20. Choose the correct matching :

1. T-Piece – Airway adjunct
2. Mackintosh – CO2 detector
3. Kidney tray – Blood storage
4. Pulse Oximeter – Recording of Pulse rate

Correct Answer: T-Piece – Airway adjunct

Q.21. Which gauge diameter of needle is used for ’intradermal injection’ ?

1. 21
2. 23
3. 24
4. 26

Correct Answer: 24

Q.22.Vitamin K injection in newborn is given at which site?

1. Right Deltoid
2. Left Deltoid
3. Mid Thigh
4. Buttock

Correct Answer: Mid Thigh

Q.23. ‘Pneumatic Bed’ is used for prevention of :

1. Tongue injury
2. Bed Sore
3. Muscular contracture
4. Foot abscess

Correct Answer: Bed Sore

Q.24. The difference between rectal and oral temperature is by :

1. 1 F
2. 2°F
3. 0.5°F
4. 1°C

Correct Answer: 1 F

Q.25. The landmark for measuring the length of nasogastric tube is :

1. Nose-Epigastrium
2. Tragus-Epigastrium
3. Nose-Tragus-Epigastrium
4. Mammary line-Epigastrium

Correct Answer: Nose-Tragus-Epigastrium

Q.26. One of the primary nursing objectives in a client with a CVA is the maintenance of the airway. To achieve this objective the nurse should initially place the client in the:

1. Prone position
2. Lareral position
3. Supine position
4. Trendelenburg position

 Correct Answer: Lareral position

Q.27. An accurate blood pressure of a client can be obtained by :

1. A cuff that covers the upper one-third of the client’s arm
2. Positioning the cuff approximately 4″ above the antecubital space
3. Use of cuff that is wide enough to cover two-thirds of the client’s arm
4. Identify the ‘Korotkoff sounds’ and take a systolic reading at 10 mmHg after the first sound.

Correct Answer: Use of cuff that is wide enough to cover two-thirds of the client’s arm

Q.28. A client develops a temperature of 102 degrees Fahrenheit (38.8 degrees Celsius), following open-heart surgery. The nurse notifies the physician because the elevated temperature indicates:

1. An increase in the cardiac output
2. Cerebral edema
3. A forerunner of hemorrhage
4. Possible diaphoresis and chilling

Correct Answer: An increase in the cardiac output

Q.29. The most common cause of spontaneous abortion is :

1. Physical trauma
2. Unresolved stress
3. Congenital defects
4. Germplasm defects

Correct Answer: Germplasm defects

Q.30. When a nurse sees a baby in respiratory distress from apparent mucus, the first nursing action is to :

1. Carefully slap the infant’s back
2. Thump the chest and start cardiopulmonary resuscitation
3. Pick the baby up by the feet
4. Call the core team

Correct Answer: Pick the baby up by the feet

Q.31. When performing a colostomy irrigation the nurse inserts the catheter into the ‘ stoma upto :

1. 5 cm (2 inches)
2. 10 cm (4 inches)
3. 15 cm (6 inches)
4. 20 cm (8 inches)

Correct Answer: 10 cm (4 inches)

Q.32. While administering an enema the maximum safe height at which the container of fluid can be held is :

1. 30 cm (12 inch)
2. 32.5 cm
3. 45 cm
4. 66 cm 

Correct Answer: 45 cm

Q.33. Infection from retention catheters can best be prevented by

1. Cleansing the perineum
2. Encouraging adequate fluid
3. Irrigating the catheter once daily
4. Cleansing around the meatus periodically

Correct Answer: Cleansing around the meatus periodically

Q.34. Radiation therapy for cancer of the prostate may cause bladder irritability, a sign of this complication would probably be :

1. Dysuria
2. Polyuria
3. Dribbling
4. Hematuria

Correct Answer: Dysuria

Q.35. Soon after the admission of a client to the hospital with head injuries, the temperature rises to 102.2 degrees Fahrenheit (39 degrees Celsius). The suggests injury to the :

1. Pallidum
2. Thalamus
3. Temporal lobe
4. Hypothalamus

Correct Answer: Hypothalamus

Q.36. Diabetes insipidus’ is a deficiency of which hormone ?

1. Atrial natriuretic peptide
2. Vasopressin
3. Aldosterone
4. Insulin

Correct Answer: Vasopressin

Q.37. The agency which has been supporting the national tuberculosis control program – of India is :

1. IRCS
2. SIDA
3. DANIDA
4. UNICEF

Correct Answer: DANIDA

Q.38. Which of the following is not a primary prevention ?

1. Pulse polio immunization
2. Vitamin A supplementation
3. Breast self-examination for tumor
4. Isoniazid (INH) to a baby breastfed by sputum positive Tubercular mother

Correct Answer: Breast self-examination for tumor

Q.39. The ’coronary care unit’ nurse draws an arterial blood sample to assess a client for acidosis. A normal pH of arterial blood is :

1. 7.0
2. 7.42
3. 7.30
4. 7.50

Correct Answer: 7.42

Q.40. Following surgery for repair of an inguinal hernia, the nurse establishes a postoperative fluid intake goal for the client. The most appropriate amount would be:

1. 500-700 mL/day
2. 1000-1500 mL/day
3. 2000-3000 mL/day
4. 3000-3500 mL/day

Correct Answer: 2000-3000 mL/day

Q.41. Which gauge diameter of needle is used for intradermal injection?

1. 21
2. 23
3. 24
4. 26

Correct Answer: 26

Q.42. Doses of Vitamin-A solution :

1. 2,00,000 IU
2. 2,30,000 IU
3. 5,00,000 IU BHU Nursing Exam Paper
4. 1,50,000 IU

Correct Answer: 2,00,000 IU

Q.43. “Avulsed teeth” should be placed in

1. Normal saline.
2. Coldwater
3. Milk
4. Warm water

Correct Answer: Milk

Q.44. How many bones makes up a newborn skull?

1. 8
2. 4
3. 6
4. 5

Correct Answer: 4

Q.45. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is :

1. 8 to 12 months of age
2. 20 to 24 months of age
3. 16 to 20 months of age
4. 12 to 16 months of age

Correct Answer: 8 to 12 months of age

Q.46. Indian Nursing Council was established in the year :

1. 1848
2. 1950
3. 1923
4. 1947

Correct Answer: 1947

Q.47. A clinical situation in which the increased release of erythropoietin would be, expected is :

1. Hypoxemia
2. Hypotension
3. Hyperkalemia
4. Fluid overload

Correct Answer: Hypoxemia

Q.48. A priority nursing intervention for the care of a terminally ill patient diagnosed with metastatic cancer is :

1. Maintaining bowel function
2. Alleviating and relieving pain
3. Preventing respiratory arrest
4. Managing chemotherapy

Correct Answer: Alleviating and relieving pain

Q.49. A client with COPD has ‘secondary polycythemia’ the nursing diagnoses that would be included in the care plan is :

1. Fluid volume deficit related to blood loss
2. Impaired tissue perfusion related to thrombosis
3. Activity intolerance related to dyspnea
4. The risk for infection related to suppressed immune response

Correct Answer: Impaired tissue perfusion related to thrombosis

Q.50. A blood transfusion should be started at how many macro-drops per minute and for how long time ?

1. 25-50 drops for 15 mins.
2. 20 drops 10 mins.
3. 25 – 50 drops for 15 mins.
4. 120 drops for 15 mins.

Correct Answer: 25 – 50 drops for 15 mins.

Q.51. Which of the following IUDs belongs to GPU IUDs ?

1. Cu-T-200
2. Lippes Loop
3. Cu-T-380 A
4. ML-250

Correct Answer: ML-250

Q.52. Janani Suraksha Yojna has been started as under :

1. CSSM
2. NRHM
3. MCH
4. ICDS 

Correct Answer: NRHM

Q.53. When administering an IM injection to an infant, the nurse should use which site?

1. Deltoid
2. Dorsoglutea!
3. Ventrogluteal
4. Vastus lateralis

Correct Answer: Vastus lateralis

Q.54 Side effect of Haemophilus influenzae is :

1. Generalized rash
2. Urticaria
3. Lethargy
4. Low-grade fever

Correct Answer: Urticaria

Q.55. A client with a ventroperitoneal VP shunt present with a sign and symptoms of restlessness, headache, blurred vision, body ache, and wide pulse, pressure, the nurse should suspect the child has :

1. Brain tumor
2. Increase intracranial pressure
3. Loss of consciousness
4. Sleep pattern disturbance

Correct Answer: Loss of consciousness

Q.56 Reduce speech production is termed as :

1. Poverty of speech
2. Mutism
3. Poverty of ideation
4. Echolalia

Correct Answer: Mutism

Q.57. One of the complication of hyperemesis gravidarum is :

1. Increased vomiting
2. Dehydration
3. Korsakoffs psychosis
4. Low blood pressure

Correct Answer: Korsakoffs psychosis

Q.58. A nurse is assessing a client with ‘pregnancy induced hypertension, the nurse expects the client blood pressure to be

1. 150/100 mmHg while standing and sitting
2. Elevated and accompanied by a headache
3. Above the baseline and fluctuating at each reading
4. 30/15 mmHg over the baseline on two occasions six hours apart

Correct Answer: 30/15 mmHg over the baseline on two occasions six hours apart

Q.59. Which immunity is affected by HIV infection ?

1. Natural immunity
2. Active immunity
3. Cellular immunity ‘
4. Humoral immunity

Correct Answer: Cellular immunity

Q.60. Multi-Drug Resistant (MDR) tuberculosis treatment involve all drugs except:

1. Kanamycin
2. Pyrazinamide
3. Rifampicin
4. Ethambutol

Correct Answer: Rifampicin

Q.61. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in the community is :

1. Sputum examination
2. Mass miniature radiography
3. Tuberculin Test
4. Clinical Examination

Correct Answer: Sputum examination

Q.62. Mini-mental status examination does not include :

1. Cognition
2. Perception
3. Insight
4. History of psychiatric disorder

Correct Answer: History of psychiatric disorder

Q.63- Prophylactic dose of Folic Acid in pregnancy is .

1. 500 microgram
2. 1 mg
3. 2 mg
4. 4 mg

Correct Answer: 500 microgram

Q.64. Sunken fontanelle is a sign of

1. Down syndrome
2. Nephrotic syndrome
3. Turner syndrome
4. Dehydration

Correct Answer: Dehydration

Q.65. Weight of placenta is :

1. 50 gm
2. 200 gm
3. 450 gm
4. 500 gm

Correct Answer: 500 gm

Q.66. Which of the following drugs is used to treat postoperative shivering

1. Ondansetron
2. Diclofenac Sodium
3. Pethidine
4. Paracetamol

Correct Answer: Pethidine

Q.67. Prostaglandin analogues are used in

1. Induction of labour
2. Induction of abortion
3. Management of PPH
4. All the above

Correct Answer: All the above

Q.68. ’APGAR Score’ is a measure of all except:

1. Respiratory status
2. Neurological status
3. Nephrological status
4. Circulatory status

Correct Answer: Nephrological status

Q.69. Which is the most frequently used gas for laparoscopy ?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Helium
3. Nitrogen
4. Oxygen

Correct Answer: Carbon dioxide

Q.70. What is to be addressed first in a case of polytrauma ?

1. Circulation
2. Blood pressure,
3. Airway
4. Neurology

Correct Answer: Airway

Q.71. For MTP, consent is taken from :

1. Wife only
2. Husband only
3. Both
4. None

Correct Answer: Wife only

Q.72. What is the average weight gain of the neonate per day ?

1. 25-30 gm
2. 25-30 gm
3. 50 – 60 gm
4. 100-150 gm

Correct Answer: 25-30 gm

Q.73. Breast milk is rich in all except:

1. Lactose
2. PUFA
3. Sodium
4. Lactalbumin

Correct Answer: Sodium

Q.74. All of the following are part of treatment of Scabies, except:

1. Topical Permethrin
2. Oral Ivermectin
3. Oral antihistaminics
4. Long term oral steroids

 Correct Answer: Long term oral steroids

Q.75. Mouth to mouth respiration provides what percentage of Oxygen ?

1. 10
2. 16
3. 21
4. 100

Correct Answer: 16

Q.76. Heat Stroke is:

1. Heat cramps
2. Heat collapse
3. Heat exhaustion
4. Heat hyperthermia

Correct Answer: Heat hyperthermia

Q.77. True about ‘dying declaration’ is :

1. More important than dying deposition
2. Can be taken in the presence of Magistrate only
3. Taken in presence of two witnesses
4. Has to be taken under oath

Correct Answer: Can be taken in the presence of Magistrate only

Q.78. Most common nosocomial infection is :

1. aureus
2. Pseudomonas
3. Listeria
4. pyogenes

Correct Answer: S. aureus

Q.79. Which is the complication of blood transfusion ?

1. Hyponatremia
2. Hyperkalemia
3. Hypercalcemia
4. Increased Serum Albumin

Correct Answer: Hyperkalemia

Q.80. Pre-anesthetic medication is given to: 

1. Reduce anxiety and fear
2. Reduction of secretion of saliva
3. Prevent undesirable reflexes
4. All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above

Q.81. HIV post-exposure prophylaxis should be started within :

1. 1-2 hours
2. 14 hours
3. 18 hours
4. 72 hours

Correct Answer: 1-2 hours

Q.82. Which vitamin deficiency occurs in patients taking first line anti tubercular drugs ?

1.  Niacin
2. Pyridoxine
3. Ascorbate
4. Thiamine

Correct Answer: Pyridoxine

Q.83. Snellen’s Chart is read from a distance of:

1. 6 feet
2. 14 feet
3. 20 feet
4. 24 feet

Correct Answer: 20 feet

Q.84.Significant weight loss is :

1. 5% over 6 to 12 months
2. 10% over 6 to 12 months
3. 5% over 6 weeks
4. 10% over 6 weeks

Correct Answer: 5% over 6 to 12 months

Q.85. Most common ‘shock’ in children is:

1. Hypovolemic
2. Cardiogenic
3. Septic
4. Neurogenic

Correct Answer: Hypovolemic

Q.86. Most common site for ’atopic dermatitis’ is :

1. Scalp
2. Trunk
3. Popliteal fossa
4. Knees

Correct Answer: Popliteal fossa

Q.87. Which is a topical way of drug administration?

1. Inhaled steroid
2. Transdermal patch
3. Sublingual NTG
4. Rectal Diazepam

Correct Answer: Inhaled steroid

Q.88. Correct order in labor is :

1. Flexion
2. Crowing
3. External rotation
4. Restitution

(1) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)

(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(3) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i)

(4) (ii)-(iv)-(i)-(iii)

Correct Answer: (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Q.89. Treatment of severe dehydration is :

1. Start colloids immediately
2. Start Ringer’s Lactate immediately
3. Combination of 5% Dextrose with Ringer’s Lactate
4. Start DNS immediately

Correct Answer: Start Ringer’s Lactate immediately

Q.90. Route of DPT vaccine is :

1. Oral
2. Subcutaneous
3. Intramuscular
4. Intravenous

Correct Answer: Intramuscular

Q.91. Kangaroo Mother Care – which of the following is ti lie ?

1. Can be done by father also
2. Indicated for LBW babies
3. Effective thermal control All of the above
4. All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above

Q.92. Propulsive stage in labor in multipara is :

1. 10 min
2. 20 min
3. 40 min BHU Nursing Exam Paper
4. 1 hour

Correct Answer: 20 min

Q.93. Drug not given in pregnancy is :

1. Inhibitors
2. Penicillin
3. Methyldopa
4. Labetalol

Correct Answer: Inhibitors

Q.94. Most common cause of ‘acute otitis media’ is:

1. influenzae
2. pneumoniae
3. aureus
4. Pseudomonas

Correct Answer: S. pneumonia

Q.95. Zinc deficiency is characterized by all except:

1. Poor vision
2. Diarrhoea
3. Dermatitis
4. Hypogonadism

Correct Answer: Poor vision

Q.96. Which of the following types of shock will usually have warm peripheral extremities?

1. Hypovolemic
2. Neurogenic
3. Cardiogenic
4. Anaphylactic

Correct Answer: Neurogenic

Q.97. Potassium content of Ringer’s Lactate (m mol /L) is :

1. 130
2. 109
3. 4
4. 50

Correct Answer: 4

Q.98.Antibiotic prophylaxis is best given :

1. 1 day before surgery
2. 2 hours before surgery
3. Before the time of incision
4. Only postoperatively

Correct Answer: Before the time of incision

Q.99. Anti tubercular drug which makes the patient non-infective earliest is :

1. INH
2. Rifampicin
3. Ethambutol
4. Pyrazinamide

Correct Answer: INH

Q.100. Vertical transmission is seen with which type of Hepatitis?

1. A
2. B
3. E
4. C

Correct Answer: B