AIIMS Bathinda Nursing Officer Question Paper 2019

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DATE OF EXAM: 29.09.2019.

Q.1. Anaphylactic shock is treated with which of the following drugs:

  1. Adrenaline
  2. Propranolol
  3. Enalapril
  4. Digoxin



Q.2. Continuous bubbling in water seal chest drainage is considered as:

  1. Normal finding
  2. Surgical emphysema
  3. Air leakage in system
  4. Chest drain is out



Q.3. The nurse is teaching the client taking cyclosporine after renal transplantation about key medication information. The nurse tells the client to be especially alert for:

  1. Signs of infection
  2. Hypotension
  3. GI disturbances
  4. Hair loss



Q.4. A Client has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia. In planning care for the client, a nurse anticipates that the client will be treated with:

  1. Thiamine
  2. Iron
  3. Vitamin B12
  4. Folic acid



Q.5. A 21-year-old woman is being treated for injuries sustained in an automobile accident. The patient has a central venous pressure (CVP) line in place. The nurse recognizes that CVP measurement reflects:

  1. Cardiac output
  2. Pressure in the left ventricle
  3. Pressure in right ventricle
  4. ressure in the pulmonary artery



Q.6. The client has undergone a thyroidectomy. The nurse monitors for signs of damage of parathyroid gland postoperatively. Which of the following would indicate damage to the parathyroid gland:

  1. Hoarseness
  2. Tingling around the mouth
  3. Respiratory distress
  4. Neck pain



Q.7. After experiencing a transient ischemic attack (TIA), a client is prescribed aspirin, 100 mg by mouth daily. The nurse should teach the client that this medication has been prescribed to:

  1. Control headache
  2. Enhance immune response
  3. Prevent intracranial bleeding
  4. Decrease platelet aggregation



Q.8. A 70-year-old client is confined to her bed due to advanced Parkinson’s disease. Which nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority for a client with Parkinson’s crisis:

  1. Postural hypotension
  2. Ineffective airway clearance
  3. Ineffective urinary elimination
  4. Risk of injury



Q.9. A nurse is caring for a client who has tracheostomy tube and is undergoing mechanical ventilation. The nurse can help prevent tracheal dilation, a complication of tracheostomy tube placement, by:

  1. Suctioning the tracheostomy tube frequently
  2. Using a cuffed tracheostomy tube
  3. Using the minimal-leak technique and keeping cuff pressure <25 cm H2o
  4. Keeping the tracheostomy tube plugged



Q.10. A client who just received a diagnosis of hepatitis A asks, “How could I have gotten this disease”. What’s the nurse’s best response:

  1. You could have contracted this by using I.V drugs
  2. You must have received an infected blood transfusion
  3. You contracted this by engaging in unprotected sex
  4. You may have eaten contaminated food



Q.11. Oral Polio Vaccine under Pulse Polio Immunisation Programme is given to children of what age:

  1. Up to one year
  2. Up to three years
  3. Up to five years
  4. Up to seven years



Q.12. Which instruction should the nurse give a patient who is going to have a chest tube removed:

  1. “Hyperventilate just before the tube is removed.”
  2. “Inhale as the tube is being pulled out.”
  3. “Take a deep breath and hold it.”
  4. “Avoid the Valsalva manoeuvre.”



Q.13. A patient with increased intracranial pressure is receiving mannitol. To evaluate the effectiveness of this drug, the nurse should assess the client for which of the following:

  1. Decreased pulse rate
  2. Increased temperature
  3. Increased urine output
  4. Increased pupillary reaction



Q.14. The primary cause of abdominal ascites in a patient with cirrhosis of the liver is: 

  1. An increased vasopressin level
  2. An increased serum sodium level
  3. A decreased serum aldosterone level
  4. A decreased serum albumin level



Q.15. A patient returns from surgery. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority at this time:

  1. Ineffective breathing pattern
  2. Deficient fluid volume
  3. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
  4. Diarrhea



Q.16. A client with status asthmaticus is in severe respiratory distress. The nurse should maintain the client in which position:

  1. Sitting upright
  2. Side-lying
  3. Supine
  4. Prone



Q.17. The nurse encourages a postoperative patient to move his legs. Contracting the leg muscles help to prevent which postoperative complication:

  1. Pleurisy
  2. Portal hypertension
  3. Hypostatic pneumonia
  4. Pulmonary embolism



Q.18. A female patient is diagnosed with gonorrhea. The nurse assess her for which of the following:

  1. Lower abdominal pain
  2. Muscle rigidity
  3. An unsteady gait
  4. Reddish rash on the inner thigh



Q.19. A patient with congestive heart failure is given digitalis. Which of the following indicates the earliest manifestation of digitalis toxicity:

  1. Hypokalemia
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Nausea & vomiting
  4. Gynecomastia



Q.20. A 47-year-old male is admitted with an acute myocardial infarction. He is cold & clammy and has severe substernal chest pain with dyspnea. Which of the following interventions nurse will implement on a priority basis:

  1. Administer adrenaline intracardiac
  2. Provide a light blanket
  3. Place patient in semi-fowler position
  4. Administer morphine by slow IV push



Q.21. The electrolyte balance in the body is regulated by which organ system:

  1. Kidneys
  2. Heart
  3. Parathyroid
  4. Liver



Q.22. Lactulose 20 gm is to be administered to a patient through gastric tube. On hand is lactulose syrup 10 gm/15 mL. How much will the nurse give:

  1. 1 ml
  2. 10 ml
  3. 20 ml
  4. 30 ml



Q.23. A patient with a pacemaker is ambulating in the room with the assistance of nurse. The patient complains of dizziness and shortness of breath. The initial action by the nurse should be:

  1. Reassure the patient that you will stay with him
  2. Have him rest in bed immediately
  3. Monitor his vital signs every hour
  4. Do nothing because this is normal after surgery



Q.24. The most likely systemic adverse effects of combination chemotherapy for the treatment of metastatic carcinoma include:

  1. Ascites
  2. Nystagmus
  3. Leukopenia
  4. Polycythemia



Q.25. The most relevant knowledge about oxygen administration to a patient with COPD includes:

  1. Oxygen at 1-2 L/min is given to maintain hypoxic stimulus for breathing
  2. Hypoxia stimulates the central chemoreceptors in the cortex that makes the patient breathe
  3. Oxygen is administered best using a non- rebreathing mask
  4. Blood gases are monitored using a pulse oximeter



Q.26. The highest priority of information given to a patient after bronchoscopy includes:

  1. Food and fluid will be withheld for at least two hours
  2. Warm saline gargles will be done q2h
  3. Coughing and deep breathing exercises will be done q2h
  4. Only ice chips and cold liquids will be allowed initially



Q.27. In a patient with acute renal failure, hypertonic glucose, insulin infusion and sodium bicarbonate can be used to treat:

  1. Hypernatremia
  2. Hypokalemia
  3. Hyperkalemia
  4. Hypercalcemia



Q.28. Pressure by the upper end of a crutch may cause injury to the:

  1. Axillary nerve
  2. Long thoracic nerve
  3. Median nerve
  4. Ulnar nerve



Q.29. In haemophilia the bleeding is due to the deficiency of:

  1. Factor VI
  2. Factor VII
  3. Factor VIII
  4. Factor IX



Q.30. A patient with tuberculosis who is on isoniazid therapy should also be administrated:

  1. Thiamine
  2. Riboflavin
  3. Nicotinic acid
  4. Pyridoxine



Q.31. A client is recovering from an ileostomy that was performed to treat inflammatory bowel disease. During discharge teachings for this client, the nurse should stress on:

  1. Increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration
  2. Wearing an appliance pouch only at bedtime
  3. Consuming a low-protein, high fiber diet
  4. Taking only enteric coated medications



Q.32. Sitz bath is given for which of the following:

  1. Appedicectomy
  2. Haemorroidectomy
  3. Cholecystectomy
  4. Mastoidectomy



Q.33. When lifting a patient onto a stretcher, the nurse should bend from the:

  1. Shoulders
  2. Knees
  3. Back
  4. Waist



Q.34. Roughage in the diet stimulates:

  1. Appetite
  2. Peristalsis
  3. The flow of digestive juices
  4. Circulation



Q.35. Which of the following may interfere with wound healing:

  1. Constrictive bandage
  2. High protein diet
  3. Keeping surrounding area clean
  4. Moderate activity



Q.36. The success of fluid replacement therapy for burn patient after 48 hours can be evaluated by:

  1. Weight
  2. Urine output
  3. Urine specific gravity
  4. Peripheral perfusion



Q.37. A client has just returned to a nursing unit after an above knee amputation of the right leg. The nurse places the client in which of the following most appropriate positions:

  1. Supine with the stump flat on the bed
  2. Supine with the stump elevated
  3. Reverse Trendelenberg position
  4. Prone



 Q.38. A client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of larynx. The most likely side effect to be expected is:

  1. Constipation
  2. Dyspnoea
  3. Sore throat
  4. Diarrhoea



Q.39. A client who has a history of gout is also diagnosed with urolithiasis. The stones are of uric acid type. A nurse gives the client instructions to limit intake of which foods:

  1. Liver
  2. Apples
  3. Carrots
  4. Milk



 Q.40. When a patient has an episode of epistaxis, which of the following actions would the nurse take first:

  1. Applying ice to the back of patients neck
  2. Tipping the patient backward and encouraging swallowing
  3. Determine if the patient has a history of hypertension
  4. Having the patient lean forward and pinch the nose



Q.41. Pulse deficit is the difference between:

  1. Radial and ulnar pulse
  2. Radial and femoral pulse
  3. Radial and apical pulse
  4. Radial and carotid pulse




Q.42. What is the most appropriate choice among the following to which a nurse pays attention when conducting a general survey on an adult client:

  1. Appearance and behavior
  2. Measurement of vital signs
  3. Observing specific body systems
  4. Collecting detailed health history



Q.43. The most effective way to break the chain of infection is:

  1. Hand hygiene
  2. Wearing gloves
  3. Placing clients in isolation
  4. Providing private rooms for clients



Q.44. Gown should be worn when:

  1. The client’s hygiene is poor
  2. The nurse is assisting with medication administration
  3. The client has Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome or hepatitis
  4. Blood or body fluids are likely to get on the nurse’s clothing from a task the nurse plans to perform



Q.45. Most medication errors occur when the nurse:

  1. is caring for too many clients
  2. Fails to follow routine procedures
  3. Is administering unfamiliar medication
  4. Is responsible for administering numerous medications



Q.46. The nurse selects the route for administering medication according to:

  1. Hospital policy
  2. The prescriber’s order
  3. The type of medication ordered
  4. The client size and muscle mass



Q.47. A principle of good body mechanics includes which of the following concepts:

  1. Keeping the knees in locked position
  2. Bending at the waist to maintain a centre of gravity
  3. Maintaining a wide base of support and bending at the knees
  4. Holding objects away from the body for improved leverage



Q.48. You discover an electrical fire in a client’s room, your first action would be to:

  1. Search and activate the fire alarm
  2. Confine the fire by closing all doors and windows
  3. Evacuate any clients or visitors in immediate danger
  4. Extinguish the fire by using the nearest fire extinguisher



Q.49. The priority when providing oral hygiene to an unconscious client is to prevent:

  1. Aspiration
  2. Mouth odour
  3. Dental caries
  4. Oral ulceration



Q.50. Which intervention is the most appropriate to include in a care plan for improving sleep in an older adult:

  1. Decrease fluid 2 to 4 hours before sleep
  2. Exercise in the evening to increase fatigue
  3. Allow the client to sleep as late as possible
  4. Take a nap during the day to make up for lost sleep



Q.51. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement after right femoral artery catheterization:

  1. Perform passive range of motion exercises
  2. Assess the client’s renal status
  3. Keep the client in high-Fowler’s position
  4. Assess the gag reflex prior to feeding the client



Q.52. A client with paranoid schizophrenia has a delusion of persecution. He tells the nurse, “The CIA is out to get me. They’re spying on me.” The nurse’s best initial response is:

  1. “I don’t want to hurt you”
  2. “How would they spy on you here?”
  3. “Tell me how they’re trying to get you
  4. “I know the CIA wouldn’t want to hurt you”




Q.53. For most nurses the most difficult part of the nurse-client relationship is:

  1. Developing an awareness of self and the professional role in the relationship
  2. Being able to understand and accept the client’s behavior
  3. Accepting responsibility in identifying and evaluating the real needs of the client
  4. Remaining therapeutic and professional at all times



Q.54. In helping to resolve a crisis situation it is most important for the nurse to:

  1. Meet all dependency needs
  2. Encourage socialization
  3. Support ego strengths
  4. Involve the person in a therapy group



Q.55. The most important component of the nursing care plan for a client with organic brain deterioration would be:

  1. An extensive re-education program
  2. Details for protective and supportive care
  3. The introduction of new leisure time activities
  4. Plans to involve the client in group therapy sessions



Q.56. In approaching a client during a period of great overactivity, it is essential to:

  1. Use a firm, warm, consistent approach
  2. Anticipate and physically control the client’s hyperactivity
  3. Allow the client to choose the activities in which to participate
  4. Let the client know the staff will not tolerate destructive behavior



Q.57. The defense mechanism in which emotional conflicts are expressed through motor, sensory, or somatic disability is identified as:

  1. Dissociation
  2. Psychosomatic
  3. Compensation
  4. Conversion



Q.58. False sensory perception in the absence of real external stimuli is called:

  1. Illusion
  2. Hallucination
  3. Depersonalization
  4. Deja vu



Q.59. A 19-year-old female is admitted to the emergency department after being found unconscious. Her blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg. She is 5′ 4″ tall and weighs 35.8 kg. She appears dehydrated and malnourished. After regaining consciousness, she reports that she has had trouble eating lately and can’t remember what she ate in the last 24 hours. She also states that she has had irregular menstrual periods for the past one year. She is convinced she is fat and refuses food. The nurse suspects that she is a case of:

  1. Bulimia nervosa
  2. Schizophrenia
  3. Reactive depression
  4. Anorexia nervosa



Q.60. The nurses demonstrates active listening by:

  1. Agreeing with the client
  2. Repeating everything the client says to clarify
  3. Assuming a relaxed posture and leaning toward the client
  4. Smiling and nodding continuously throughout the interview



Q.61. Which assessment finding would lead the nurse to suspect that a patient’s IV has infiltrated:

  1. In the past hour, only 50 ml of fluid has Infused
  2. The insertion site is red, hot and swollen
  3. The patient’s temperature has risen to 38.3°C
  4. The site is pale, cool, swollen and painful



Q.62. What type of authority regulates the practice of nursing:

  1. International Standards and Codes
  2. Federal Guidelines and Regulations
  3. State Nurse Practice Act
  4. Institutional policies



Q.63. Which of the following is NOT a feature of HELLP syndrome:

  1. Thrombocytopenia
  2. Eosinophilia
  3. Raised liver enzymes
  4. Hemolytic anemia



Q.64. A 29-year-old primigravida comes to the obstetrician for a prenatal visit. She is known to be HIV positive. She also has asthma, for which she uses an inhaler. She has no known drug allergies. Extensive counselling is given to her regarding vertical transmission of HIV to her baby. It is recommended to her that she take antiretroviral therapy during the pregnancy to decrease the vertical transmission rate. It is also recommended to her that she have a scheduled Cesarean delivery. After consideration of these options, the patient chooses not to take the T.COM antiretroviral therapy and opts for a vaginal delivery. Which of the following represents the approximate risk of vertical transmission for this woman:

  1. 5%
  2. 8%
  3. 25%
  4. 100%




Q.65. A primigravida at 37 weeks reported to labor room with central placenta previa with heavy bleeding per vaginam. The FHS was normal at time of examination. The best management option for her is:

  1. Expectant management
  2. Cesarean section
  3. Induction and vaginal delivery
  4. Induction and forceps delivery



Q.66: The first consideration in the treatment of placental abruption:

  1. Immediate delivery
  2. Administration of fibrinogen
  3. Amniocentesis to establish diagnosis
  4. Prompt restoration of an effective circulation with IV fluids



Q.67. A case of 35 weeks pregnancy with polyhydramnios and marked respiratory distress is managed by:

  1. IV furosemide
  2. Saline infusion
  3. Amniocentesis
  4. ARM



Q.68. Which of the following is commonly seen in fetus with congenial CMV infection:

  1. Colitis
  2. Myocarditis
  3. Blood dyscrasias
  4. Pulmonary cyst



Q.69. Paracervical block is associated with the danger of:

  1. Inhibition of labor
  2. Fetal bradycardia
  3. Increased blood loss
  4. Atony of uterus



Q.70. Third degree perineal tear is involvement of:

  1. Vaginal mucosa
  2. Urethral mucosa
  3. Levator ani muscle
  4. Anal sphincter



Q.71.  As a nurse, you teach a client who has had surgery to increase which nutrient to help with tissue repair:

  1. Fats
  2. Proteins
  3. Vitamins
  4. Carbohydrates



Q.72. During the orientation phase of the helping relationship the nurse might do which of the following:

  1. Discuss the cards and the flowers in the room
  2. Review the client’s history to identify possible health concerns
  3. Work together with the client to establish goals
  4. Use therapeutic communication to manage the client’s confusion



Q.73. A client needs to learn to use a walker. Acquisition of this skill will require learning in the:

  1. Affective domain
  2. Cognitive domain
  3. Psychomotor domain
  4. Attention domain



Q.74. The nurse plans to teach a client about the importance of exercise:

  1. When there are visitors in the room
  2. When the client’s pain medications are working
  3. Just before lunch when the client is most awake and alert
  4. When the client is talking about current stressors in his or her life



Q.75. The nurse asks the client, how do you feel about yourself? The nurse is assessing the client’s:

  1. Identity
  2. Self esteem
  3. Body image
  4. Role performance



Q.76.”Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity”. This was stated by:

  1. United Nations
  2. National Institute of Health
  3. National League for Nursing (NLN)
  4. World Health Organization



Q.77. A 26-year-old primigravida woman comes to the labor and delivery ward at term with regular, painful contractions. Her prenatal course was unremarkable. She has a past medical history suggestive of mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation which is demonstrated on echocardiography. She takes no medications and has no allergies to medications. Examination shows that her cervix is 4 centimetres dilated and the fetus is in vertex presentation. The fetal heart rate is reassuring. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this woman:

  1. Administer intravenous antibiotics throughout labor
  2. Administer intravenous antibiotics 30 minutes prior to the delivery
  3. Administer intravenous antibiotics after the cord is clamped
  4. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary



Q.78. The reason for using the parenteral route to administer medications includes:

  1. Parenteral medications have a longer duration of action than an oral medication
  2. It is the least expensive method
  3. It is easier to measure an accurate dose
  4. The parenteral route allows more rapid absorption than the oral route



Q.79. Pulse oximetry is used to:

  1. Count the respiratory rate
  2. Determine the amount of oxygen taken into the lungs
  3. Measure carbon dioxide in the blood
  4. Determine the amount of oxygen carried in the blood



Q.80. When uterus is overstimulated by oxytocin, which of following signs the nurse can identify:

  1. Weak uterine contractions prolonged to more than 90 sec
  2. Increased labour pain with bright red vaginal bleeding
  3. Tetanic contractions prolonged for more than 90 sec
  4. Increased restlessness with pain



Q.81. After administering furosemide to a 16- month-old child who has congestive heart failure, a nurse would expect to make which of the following observations:

  1. A decrease in rhonchi when listening to breath sounds
  2. A 20 mm Hg decrease in systolic blood pressure
  3. An increase in apical heart rate
  4. A 10 mL/kg increase in urine output



Q.82. When feeding an 18-month-old child two days after he underwent a cleft palate repair, a nurse would offer liquid nutrition using a:

  1. Plastic cup
  2. Silastic nasogastric
  3. Flexible straw
  4. Rubber-coated infant spoon



Q.83. A parent tells a nurse, “my three-month- old infant recently passed several stools that resembled clumpy red jelly.” Based on this information, the nurse should suspect that the infant has developed:

  1. Celiac disease
  2. Biliary disease
  3. Intussusception
  4. Ulcerative colitis



Q.84. A six-month-old infant has recently begun cereal feedings. Which of the following manifestations would support a nursing diagnosis of ineffective infant feeding pattern:

  1. Frequent loose stools
  2. Increased abdominal girth
  3. Persistent tongue thrusting
  4. Lengthened time between meals



Q.85. During the one minute Apgar assessment, a newborn has a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, lusty cry, acrocyanosis and minimal flexion of extremities. A nurses would give the newborn an Apgar score of:

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9



Q.86. A child is being discharged from the emergency with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following measures would a nurse include in the home care plan:

  1. Restrict fluid intake
  2. Weigh daily
  3. Maintain strict bed rest
  4. Limit visitors



Q.87. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be given priority in the care plan of a newborn at one hour of age:

  1. Risk for infection
  2. Altered nutrition
  3. Ineffective thermoregulation
  4. Impaired skin integrity



Q.88. Non-verbal communication involves:

  1. Asserting yourself
  2. Choosing words carefully and presenting them
  3. Skills needed for rapport building and decision making
  4. Conveying one’s feelings through body language



Q.89. Which of the following objective assessment data will the nurse obtain before administering a prescribed opioid medication to a patient:

  1. Pain level as stated by patient
  2. Any nausea the patient may be feeling
  3. Respiratory rate
  4. Color of the skin



Q.90. The best way to check the patency of arteriovenous fistula for haemodialysis

  1. Pinch the fistula and note the speed of filling on release
  2. Use a needle and syringe to aspirate the blood from the fistula
  3. To check for the capillary refill of the nail beds on that extremity
  4. Palpate the fistula throughout its length to assess for a thrill



Q.91. A non-stress test is prescribed for a pregnant mother and nurse informs the woman about the procedure. The nurse tells that:

  1. The test is an invasive procedure and requires that an informed consent be signed
  2. The test will take about 2 hours and will require close monitoring for 2 hours after procedure is completed
  3. An ultrasound transducer that records fetal heart activity is secured over the abdomen where the fetal heart sound is heard most clearly
  4. The fetus is challenged or stressed by uterine contractions to obtain the necessary information



Q.92. Which of the clients would the nurse identify as being at the greatest risk for developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC):

  1. A 4th gravida delivered 8 hours ago and has lost 500 mL of blood
  2. A 2nd gravida diagnosed with dead fetus syndrome
  3. A primigravida with mild pre-eclampsia
  4. A primigravida who delivered a 3.5 kg baby 3 hours ago



Q.93. If the labour ends within 3 hours with 2-3 painful contractions, it is called:

  1. Difficult labour
  2. Precipitate labour
  3. Prolonged labour
  4. Normal labour



Q.94. A patient is experiencing which type of incontinence if she experiences leaking urine when she coughs, sneezes, or lifts heavy objects:

  1. Overflow
  2. Stress
  3. Urge
  4. Reflex



Q.95. Which of the following does not cross placenta:

  1. Heparin
  2. Morphine
  3. Naloxone
  4. Warfarin


Q.96. Which of the following vaccine is routinely given in pregnancy:

  1. Influenza
  2. Oral polio
  3. Tetanus
  4. Rabies



Q.97. An 8-year-old is admitted to the hospital in sickle cell crisis, appropriate nursing care during this period includes:

  1. Administration of oxygen
  2. Cold compress to painful joints
  3. Restricted fluids until crisis is over
  4. Active range of motion exercises to all joints



Q.98. A child has been prescribed 240 mL of fluid to be administered by micro drip set over 6 hours, the nurse will regulate IV at:

  1. 160 drops/min
  2. 120 drops/min
  3. 40 drops/min
  4. 60 drops/min



Q.99. Which of the following behaviors by a 36- month-old child supports a nursing diagnosis of altered growth and development:

  1. Walks holding into furniture
  2. Sits down from a standing position
  3. Can push and pull toys
  4. Throws a ball overhead



Q.100. A two-year-old arrives in the emergency room with an elevated temperature. During the physical examination, the child’s color becomes dusky, the body stiffens and the extremities begin to twitch. The nurse should be aware that the child is most probably experiencing:

  1. Febrile seizures
  2. Respiratory arrest
  3. A temper tantrum
  4. Shivering


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