SREE CHITRA TIRUNAL INSTITUTE FOR MEDICAL SCIENCES & TECHNOLOGY 2010

SREE CHITRA TIRUNAL INSTITUTE FOR MEDICAL SCIENCES & TECHNOLOGY
WRITTEN TEST FOR THE POST OF STAFF NURSE 2010
Question Paper & Answer Keys Download 

Nursing Officer Question Paper 2010


Q.1) Percentage of oxygen delivered by use of a non-rebreathing mask with a flow rate of 10 liters/ minute is:

(A) 20 – 35

(B) 35 – 50

(C) 50-60

(D) 90 – 95

 

Correct Answer:90 – 95


 

Q.2) Simple or typical febrile seizures occur in:

(A) Infants below 3 months of age

(B) 3 months – 5 years

(C) 3 years – 8 years

(D) Preadolescents

 

Correct Answer:3 months – 5 years

 


 

Q.3) The dilution of adrenaline used in neonatal resuscitation is:

(A) 1:10

(B) 1:100

(C) 1:1000

(D) 1:10000

 

Correct Answer: 1:10000

 


 

Q.4) Injection sodium bicarbonate should not be mixed with

(A) Normal saline

(B) 5% dextrose

(C) Calcium gluconate

(D) Ringer lactate

 

Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate

 


 

Q.5) Weight and Length of a normal full term baby, with birth weight of 3 kg at one year of ages are expected to be:

(A) 7 kg and 70 cm

(B) 9 kg and 75 cm

(C) 12 kg and 80 cm

(D) 12 kg and 85 cm

 

Correct Answer: 9 kg and 75 cm

 


 

Q.6) Using a placebo for pain control in a certain case without the patient’s consent is:

(A)justified and ethical

(B) justified but unethical

(C)deceptive but ethical

(D)deceptive and unethical

 

Correct Answer: deceptive and unethical

 


 

Q.7) Which of the following can be used for applying moist heat?

(A)Sitz bath

(B) Aqua pad

(C) Hot water bag

(D) Commercial hot pack

 

Correct Answer: Sitz bath

 


 

Q.8) Which action is most effective in preventing wound infections?

(A) Using sterile dressings

(B) Suggesting dietary supplements

(C) Applying antibiotic ointment

(D) Observing careful hand hygiene

 

Correct Answer: Observing careful hand hygiene

 


 

Q.9) Before administering enteric coated drug through a nasogastric tube, the nurse should first ensure:

(A) Crushing of the tablet

(B) Flushing the tube with warm water

(C) Checking for proper placement of the tube

(D) Taking the patient’s vital signs

 

Correct Answer: Checking for proper placement of the tube

 


 

Q.10) Maslow’s hierarchy of basic human needs is useful when planning and implementing nursing care, as it provides a structure for:

(A) Making an accurate nursing diagnosis

(B) Establishing priorities of care

(C) Communicating concerns more concisely

(D) Integrating science into nursing care

 

Correct Answer: Establishing priorities of care

 


 

Q.11) Which nursing organization was the first international organization of women nurses?

(A) The International Council of Nurses (ICN)

(B) The American Nurses Association (ANA)

(C) The National League for Nursing (NLN)

(D) The National Student Nurses’ Association (NSNA)

 

Correct Answer:The International Council of Nurses (ICN)

 


 

Q.12) Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is administered through a central vein because of:

(A) Rapid rate of infusion

(B) High volume of infusion

(C) High osmolarity of the solution

(D) Easy access

 

Correct Answer: High osmolarity of the solution

 


 

Q.13) Gas gangrene is caused by:

(A) Clostridium tetani

(B) Clostridium perfringes

(C) Clostridium difficile

(D) Anaerobic streptococci

 

Correct Answer: Clostridium perfringes

 


 

Q.14) Most important step in avoiding wrong-site surgery is:

(A) Having a checklist procedure before surgery

(B) Avoiding patients with the same name on the list

(C) Avoiding patients with the same conditions in the list

(D) Having a short operation list

 

Correct Answer: Having a checklist procedure before surgery

 


 

Q.15) Transmission of HIV to health care workers during surgery can be prevented by:

(A) Routine screening of all patients

(B) Using “universal precautions”

(C) Avoiding surgery on HIV patients

(D) Antiretroviral prophylaxis for the health care workers

 

Correct Answer: Using “universal precautions”

 


 

Q.16) Accurate estimation of large burn areas is done by:

(A) “Rule of nine”

(B) Patient hand approximated to 1% total burn surface area

(C)  Lund & Browder chart

(D) Calculation of Body Mass Index

Correct Answer: Lund & Browder chart

 


 

Q.17) Most common topical treatment used for burn wound, which is effective against both pseudomonas and MRSA is:

(A) Silver sulphadiazine

(B) 0.5% Silver nitrate

(C)Mafenide acetate

(D)Soframycin

 

Correct Answer: Silver sulphadiazine

 


 

Q.18) Best and easy way to monitor resuscitation in a burn patient is:

(A) Monitoring pulse rate

(B) Monitoring blood pressure

(C) Monitoring urine output

(D) Monitoring haematocrit

Correct Answer: Monitoring urine output

 


 

Q.19) Lucid interval is seen in

(A) Intra cerebral haemorrhage

(B) Extradural haemorrhage

(C) Acute subdural haemorrhage

(D) Chronic subdural haemorrhage

 

Correct Answer:Extradural haemorrhage

 


 

Q.20) All the following suture materials are absorbable, EXCEPT:

(A)Polyglycolic acid (Vicryl)

(B) Chromic catgut

(C) Polypropylene (Prolene)

(D)Polydioxanone (PDS)

 

Correct Answer:Polypropylene (Prolene)

 


 

Q.21) A patient with Diabetes Insipidus characteristically complains of:

(A) Fatigue

(B) Hunger

(C) Thirst

(D) Weight loss

 

Correct Answer:Thirst

 


 

 

Q.22) The fluid preferred for initial resuscitation of a patient with hemorrhagic shock is:

(A) Ringer’s lactate

(B) Whole blood

(C) 5% dextrose

(D) Fresh frozen plasma

Correct Answer:Ringer’s lactate

 

 

Q.23) Nyctalopia and Bitot Spot are due to deficiency of:

(A) Vitamin A

(B) Vitamin C

(C) Vitamin D

(D) Vitamin E

Correct Answer:Vitamin A

 

 

Q.24) One pint of 10% dextrose yields, how much of calories?

(A) 100

(B) 200

(C) 300

(D) 400

Correct Answer:200

 

 

Q.25) The thick collection of nerve fibers that connects the two hemispheres of the brain is called:

(A) Corpus callosum

(B) Hypothalamus

(C) Pons

(D) Brain stem

Correct Answer:Corpus callosum

 

 

Q.26) Guedal airway is a:

(A) Oropharyngeal airway

(B) Nasopharyngeal airway

(C) Laryngeal airway

(D) Tracheal airway

Correct Answer:Guedal airway is a:

 

 

Q.27) All of the following are complications of immobility, EXCEPT:

(A) Pneumonia

(B) Deep venous thrombosis

(C) Pressure sores

(D) Hepatic failure

Correct Answer:Hepatic failure

 

 

Q.28) Which of the following represents lead III of electrocardiography?

(A) Right leg to right arm

(B) Left leg to left arm

(C) Right leg to left arm

(D) Left leg to right arm

Correct Answer:Left leg to left arm

 

 

Q.29) In Trendelenburg position:

(A) The foot end of the bed is elevated

(B) The head end of the bed is elevated

(C) Patient is put in decubitus position

(D) Patient is put in prone position

Correct Answer:The foot end of the bed is elevated

 

 

Q.30) Gastric lavageshould not be done in:

(A) Antipsychotic drug poisoning

(B) Corrosive poisoning

(C) Organophosphorus poisoning

(D) Organochlorine poisoning

Correct Answer:Corrosive poisoning

 

 

Q.31) Whichof the following clinical nursing practices is recommendedas most importantto healthcareand nursing professionals today?

(A) Primary care nursing

(B) Community-based nursing

(C) Authoritative nursing

(D) Evidence-based practice

Correct Answer:Evidence-based practice

 

Q.32) Theoral clinical thermometer records a temperature of 102°Fin a patient scheduledfor surgery, but the patient is afebrile to touch. The first thing to be done by the recording nurse is to:

(A) Inform the in-charge nurse

(B) Inform the doctor

(C)validate the finding

(D)document the finding

Correct Answer:validate the finding

 

Q.33) Which route one uses to identify hypothermia in a new born?

(A) Oral

(B) Aural

(C) Rectal

(D) Surface probe

Correct Answer: Rectal

 

 

Q.34) A known admitted cardiac patient develops dyspnea. What should the attending nurse do first beforeother activities?

(A) Remove pillows from under the head

(B) Keep the. patient in left-side up position

(C) Elevate the foot end of the bed

(D) Keep the patient in propped-up position

Correct Answer:Elevate the foot end of the bed

 

 

Q.35) In the critical-care pain observation tool, which facial expression has been given the score of 2?

(A) Relaxed, neutral

(B) Tense

(C) Grimacing

(D) Shouting

Correct Answer:Grimacing

 

 

Q.36) Which method of documentation uses the categories “data, action and response” (DAR) to facilitate nurse’s daily charting?

(A) Narrative notes

(B) Focus charting

(C) Case management model

(D) Minimum data set

Correct Answer:Focus charting

 

 

Q.37) When implementing the plan of care for a patient receiving intravenous therapy, which nursing practice would be most appropriate?

(A) Changing the IV catheter entry site daily

(B) Changing the tubings every 8 hours

(C) Increasing the rate to catch up, if the correct amount has not been infused at the end of the shift

(D)Monitoring the flow rate once every hour

Correct Answer:Monitoring the flow rate once every hour

 

 

Q.38)  While administering a blood transfusion, the ideal nursing care recommended to identify a blood transfusion reaction is:

(A) Inspecting 15 minutes after the infusion is started

(B) Inspecting at the end of transfusion

(C) Inspecting once in every 30 minutes

(D) Inspecting whenever the patient complains

Correct Answer:Inspecting once in every 30 minutes

 

 

Q.39) When caring for a patient with chronic lung disease on oxygen therapy by nasal canula, the most important check, that is expected of the nurse is:

(A) The oxygen must be humidified

(B) The rate will be 2 L/min or less

(C) Periodic sampling of arterial blood for ABG

(D) The rate will be 6 L/min or more

Correct Answer:The rate will be 2 L/min or less

 

 

Q.40) Which nursing action is inappropriate when performing oro-pharyngeal suctioning on a patient?

(A) Using steriletechnique

(B) Applyingsuction as the catheter is being introduced

(C) Flushingthe catheter with saline between catheter insertions

(D) Limitingsuctionto 15 second intervalsat one time.

Correct Answer:Applying suction as the catheter is being introduced

 

 

Q.41)  Dilated pupil could result from:

(A) Structurallesions in the pons

(B) Morphinepoisoning

(C) Pilocarpineeye drops instillation

(D) Braindeath

Correct Answer:Brain death

 

 

Q.42) Rest is needed in patients with coronary artery disease to:

(A) Correctarrhythmias

(B) Reduceoxygen requirementsof the body

(C) Reducethe size of the heart

(D) Reducethe tendency for insomnia

Correct Answer:Reduce oxygen requirements of the body

 

 

Q.43) Myasthenia gravis is a disease of:

(A) Neuromuscularjunction

(B) Anterior horn cells

(C) Skeletal muscle

(D) Spinal cord

Correct Answer:Neuromuscular junction

 

 

Q.44) Parkinson’s disease is characterized by the following, EXCEPT:

(A) Uniformspasticity

(B) Postural instability

(C) Tremors

(D) Bradykinesia

Correct Answer:Uniform spasticity

 

Q.45) One of the following drugs cannot be used in hypertension management:

(A)Nifedipine

(B) Dopamine

(C) Propranolol

(D) Reserpine

Correct Answer: Dopamine

 

Q.46) The typical ECGpattern (in the appropriate leads) of Acute Myocardial Infarction:

(A) ST DepressionandT Wave Inversion

(B) ST SegmentElevation

(C) DeepT Wave Inversion

(D) RightBundleBranchBlockpattern

Correct Answer:ST Segment Elevation

 

 

Q.47) One of the following drugs is used to lower blood cholesterol:

(A) Diltiazem

(B) Propranolol

(C)Frusemide

(D) Atorvastatin

Correct Answer:Atorvastatin

 

 

Q.48) One of the following is an antipiatelet drug:

(A) Digoxin

(B) Streptokinase

(C) Aspirin

(D)Dobutamine

Correct Answer:Aspirin

 

 

Q.49) The drug that is used to treat a cyanotic spell in a child is:

(A) Morphine

(B) Pethidine

(C) Diazepam

(D) Haloperidol

Correct Answer:Morphine

 

 

Q.50) The supportive cells of the nervous system are:

(A) T cells

(B) Stemcells

(C) Glial cells

(D) Astrocytes

Correct Answer:Glial cells

 

 

Q.51)  A 35-year old smoker with gangrene toe most probably suffers from:

(A)Thrombo-angitisobliterans

(B) Reynaud’sdisease

(C) Atherosclerosis

(D)Arterio-venousfistula

Correct Answer:Thrombo-angitis obliterans

 

 

Q.52) Nursing activities shown to potentially increase intracranial pressure include:

(A) Raising the head of the bed to 30 degree

(B) Applying therapeutic touch

(C) Endo-tracheal suctioning

(D) Speaking softly

Correct Answer:Endo-tracheal suctioning

 

 

Q.53) The treatmentof mitral stenosis is:

(A) Balloon Valvotomy

(B) PTCA

(C) By-Pass Surgery

(D) Angiogram

Correct Answer:Balloon Valvotomy

 

 

Q.54) Oneof the following is a newtest used in acutechest pain:

(A) SGOT estimation

(B) Troponin T or I estimation

(C) Blood Cholesterol estimation

(D) LDH estimation

Correct Answer:Troponin T or I estimation

 

 

Q.55) The nurse should expect a patient who has chronic renal failure to be given erythropoietin (Epogen)to :

(A) Elevate the WBC count

(B) Enhance the maturation of thrombocytes

(C) Increase the production of platelets

(D) Stimulate the synthesis of red blood cells

Correct Answer:Stimulate the synthesis of red blood cells

 

 

Q.56) When teaching the care-givers of a patient who has dementia of the Alzheimertype, a nurseshould stress the importance of:

(A) Increased stimuli

(B) A predictable environment

(C) Restricted activities

(D) Independent decision making

Correct Answer:A predictable environment

 

 

Q.57)  Which of the following blood values on the laboratory report should a nurse expect, when assessinga-patientwho hasemphysema?

(A) PC02 52 mm Hg

(B)pH 7.48

(C) PO2 94 mm Hg

(D) HC03 21 mEq/2

Correct Answer:PC02 52 mm Hg

 

 

Q.58) Which of the following conditions would a nurse recognize as contributing to the development of respiratory acidosis?

(A) COPD

(B) Hyperventilation

(C) Diarrhea

(D) Achalasia

Correct Answer:COPD

 

 

Q.59) Which of the following outcomes observed by the nurse during the drain cycle of peritoneal dialysis should be reported immediately to the physician?

(A) Clear yellow output

(B) Cloudy output

(C) Patient complaint of slight cramping

(D) A drain output of 5Occless than instilled

Correct Answer:Cloudy output

 

 

Q.60) Which of the following foods should be removed from the dietary tray of a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy?

(A)Idli

(B) Drumstick leaves

(C) Fresh fruit

(D) Eggs

Correct Answer: Eggs

 

 

Q.61) Which of the following findings would a nurse identify as indicative of septic shock in a patient?

(A) Bradycardia

(B) Elevated JVP

(C) Cool, clammy skin

(D) S3 gallop

Correct Answer:Cool, clammy skin

 

 

Q.62) The nurse should instruct a patientwho is to receiveDigoxin (Lanoxin) to report developmentof which of the following side effects?

(A) Ringing in the ears

(B) Loss of appetite

(C) Signs of bruising

(D) Sensitivity to sunlight

Correct Answer:Loss of appetite

 

 

 

Q.63) Enteric fever is transmitted by:

(A) Inhalation

(B) Ingestion

(C) Inoculation

(D)insects

Correct Answer:Inoculation

 

 

Q.64) Nursing care for a patient who has polycythemia vera would focus on preventing?

(A) Dysrhythmias

(B) Hypotension

(C) Thrombosis

(D) Decubitus ulcers

Correct Answer:Thrombosis

 

 

Q.65) The length of the spinal cord in an adult male is:

(A) 18 cm

(B) 45 cm

(C) 50 cm

(D) 36 cm

Correct Answer:45 cm

 

 

Q.66) When caring for a patient who is on a mechanical ventilator, the nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following complications?

(A) Flail chest

(B) Pleural effusion

(C) Pneumothorax

(D) Pulmonary embolus

Correct Answer:Pneumothorax

 

Q.67)  Broca’s area controls:

(A) Sensory functions

(B) Speech

(C) Emotions

(D) Motor functions

Correct Answer:Speech

 

 

Q.68) Who invented the Blood grouping as A, B, O?

(A) Landsteiner

(B) John Gibbon

(C)William Harvey

(D) Robert Boucher

Correct Answer: Landsteiner

 

 

Q.69) Which of the following vitamins is soluble in water?

(A) A

(B) E

(C) C

(D) D

Correct Answer:C

 

 

Q.70) How many lobes are present in Right lung?

(A) 7

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 9

Correct Answer:3

 

 

Q.71) Which plane divides the brain into unequal right and left portions?

(A) Frontal plane

(B) Transverse plane

(C) Mid-sagittal plane

(D) Para-sagittal plane

Correct Answer:Para-sagittal plane

 

 

Q.72) Which channels are opened during depolarization in metabolism?

(A) K +

(B) Na +

(C) Mg +

(D) Ca +

Correct Answer:Na +

 

 

Q.73) What is the outermost layer of heart called?

(A) Endocardium

(B) Epicardium

(C) Myocardium

(D) Pericardium

Correct Answer:Epicardium

 

Q.74) Cholesterol is important in the human body for:

(A) Angiogenesis

(B) Cell membrane structure

(C) Enzyme synthesis

(D)Osteogenesis

Correct Answer:Cell membrane structure

 

 

 

Q.75)  In the P, Q, R, S waves in E.C.G.,’P’ wave represents?

(A) Atrial depolarisation

(B) Atrial repolarisation

(C) Ventricular depolarisation

(D) Ventricular repolarization

Correct Answer:Atrial depolarisation

 

 

Q.76) To calculate cardiac output, heartrate is multiplied with?

(A) Stroke volume

(B) Systemic arterial pressure

(C) Pulmonaryarterial pressure

(D) Circulatoryvolume

Correct Answer:Stroke volume

 

 

Q.77) In which organ are the ‘Kupfer cells’ present?

(A) Brain

(B) Heart

(C) Liver

(D) Pancreas

Correct Answer:Liver

 

 

Q.78) “Gonads” means:

(A) Salivary glands

(B) Sebaceousglands

(C) Sweat glands

(D) Testis and ovaries

Correct Answer:Testis and ovaries

 

 

 

Q.79) In proteins classification, class ‘A’ proteins are:

(A) Animal proteins

(B) Vegetable proteins

(C) Oil proteins

(D) Milk proteins

Correct Answer:Animal proteins

 

 

 

Q.80) What is the scientific nameof vitamin 86?

(A) Biotin

(B) Pyridoxine

(C) Nicotinic acid

(D) Thiamine

Correct Answer:Pyridoxine


Nursing Officer Question Paper 2010 & Answer Keys Download 

Leave a Reply