AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nursing Officer Grade -I Question Paper 2018

AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nursing Officer Grade -I Question Paper 2018

AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nursing Office Grade -I Question Paper 2018

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THE SCREENING TEST FOR THE POST OF SENIOR NURSING OFFICER GRADE-I FOR ALL INDIA INSTITUTE OF MEDICAL SCIENCES JODHPUR WAS CONDUCTED IN 2018. THE PAPER IS GIVEN BELOW.

DATE OF EXAM: 

Q.1. Who is the ‘Father of psychoanalytical Theory’? 

  1. Lawrence kohlberg
  2. Jean piaget
  3. Abraham maslow
  4. Sigmund freud

 

Q.2. Twitching of facial muscles when the facial nerve is tapped anterior to the earlobe is called:

  1. Chvostek’s sign
  2. Trousseau’s sign
  3. Homans’ Sign
  4. Brudzinski’s sign

 

 

Q.3. In a lecture on sexual functioning, a nurse will include the fact that ovulation occurs when the:

  1. Endometrial wall is sloughed off
  2. Blood level of LH is too high
  3. Oxytocin level is too high
  4. Progesterone level is high

 

 

Q.4. Which of the following is used for passive immunization?

  1. Killed vaccine
  2. Human and animal sera
  3. Toxoid
  4. Live attenuated vaccine

 

 

Q.5. Management of wernicke’s disease and Beriberi involves administration of:

  1. lodine
  2. Vitamin A
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Thiamine

 

 

Q.6. When toddlers move around on their hands keeping their abdomen off the floor, it is called:

  1. Squirming
  2. Creeping
  3. Crawling
  4. Rolling

 

 

Q.7. ‘Do no harm’ is which ethical principle?

  1. Veracity
  2. Beneficence
  3. Non-maleficence
  4. Justice

 

 

Q.8. A nurse receives an order to give a patient two puffs of saometerol, and two puffs of beclomethasone dipropionate, by a metered dose inhaler. The nurse should administer the medication by:

  1. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the salmeterol
  2. Giving the beclomethasone first and then the salmeterol
  3. Giving the salmeterol first and then the beclomethasone
  4. alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the beclomethasone

 

 

 

Q.9. Eugenics means:

  1. Improvement of genetic endowment
  2. Genetic counseling
  3. Improvement of environment
  4. Genetic preventive measures

 

 

Q.10. Parrot-like repetition of words spoken by another person is known as:

  1. Echolalia
  2. Neologism
  3. Echopraxia breviation
  4. Dyscalculia

 

 

Q.11. How should a nurse assess whether a patient with cirrhosis has asterixis?

  1. Ask the patient to extend the arms
  2. Instruct the patient to lean forward
  3. Dorsiflex the patient’s foot
  4. Measure the abdominal girth

 

 

Q.12. Which of the following immunoglobulin will be high in a person with an allergy?

  1. Ig E
  2. IgG
  3. Ig M
  4. Ig A

 

 

Q.13. If a chest drainage system line is broken or interrupted, the nurse’s first course of action should be to:

  1. Document findings
  2. Notify the physician
  3. Check the patient’s vitals
  4. Clamp the tube immediately

 

 

Q.14. Which part of the mind is associated with practical reality principle?

  1. Hyper-ago
  2. Super-ego
  3. Ego
  4. Id

 

 

Q.15. A rare condition in which separate personalities exist in the same person is called

  1. Dissociative identity disorder:
  2. Delusion
  3. Schizophrenia
  4. Somatoform disorder

 

 

Q.16. Painful spasms of the hamstring muscle and resistance to further extension of the leg at the knee while flexing the hip of a recumbent patient is called:

  1. Kernig’s Sign
  2. Brudzinski’s sign
  3. Opisthotonus
  4. Ankle clonus

 

 

Q.17. Acid-fast bacilli are found positive in which of the following conditions?

  1. Tuberculosis and Leprosy
  2. SARS and Diphtheria
  3. Tuberculosis
  4. Diphtheria

 

 

Q.18. Which of the following hepatitis viruses spreads by fecal-oral route?

  1. Hepatitis D
  2. Hepatitis C
  3. Hepatitis A
  4. Hepatitis B

 

 

Q.19. Validity of a data-collection instrument means:

  1. The degree to which two different forms of an instrument obtain the same results
  2. The consistency of data over time
  3. The stability of data over time
  4. The ability of the instrument of gather the data that it is intended to measure

 

 

Q.20. When performing an abdominal assessment, in which order are the given steps followed?

  1. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
  2. Palpation, inspection, percussion, auscultation
  3. Percussion, auscultation, inspection, palpation
  4. Inspection, percussion, palpation, auscultation

 

 

Q.21. The maintenance provided by a husband to his divorced wife is called:

  1. Mehr
  2. Bride price
  3. Alimony
  4. Dowry

 

 

Q.22. Infection that occurs as a result of a therapeutic or diagnostic procedure is called a/an:

  1. Opportunistic infection
  2. Iatrogenic infection
  3. Cross infection
  4. Nosocomial infection

 

 

Q.23. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for typhoid?

  1. ELISA
  2. Shick test
  3. Widal test
  4. Mantoux test

 

 

Q.24. A …………….. is an elevation of skin filled with fluid and is less than 1 cm in diameter:

  1. Wheal
  2. Vesicle
  3. Papule
  4. Macule

 

 

Q.25. The only class of immunoglobulin which is transported across the placenta is:

  1. Ig G
  2. Ig D
  3. Ig D
  4. Ig M

 

 

Q.26. Tall-tented T waves and widened QRS are seen in:

  1. Hyperphosphatemia
  2. Hyperkalemia
  3. Hyponatremia
  4. Hyperglycemia

 

 

Q.27. The first action in case of a blood transfusion reaction is:

  1. Waiting for the symptoms to subside
  2. Stopping the blood
  3. Informing a physician
  4. Maintaining the line with normal saline

 

 

Q.28. Sharing responsibility and authority with others and holding them accountable for performance is termed as ………………….. :

  1. Leading
  2. Organising
  3. Controlling
  4. Delegation

 

 

Q.29. Which of the following is a stage of the nursing process in which the nurse continuously collects data to identify a patient’s actual and potential health needs?

  1. Planning
  2. Evaluation
  3. Implementation
  4. Assessment

 

 

Q.30. Which of the following is considered as an indication for administering serum albumin?

  1. Formation of WBCs
  2. Maintenance of oncotic pressure
  3. Formation of RBCs
  4. Clotting of blood

 

 

Q.31. In ECG, the P wave represents:

  1. Atrial depolarization
  2. Ventricular depolarisation
  3. Ventricular repolarisation
  4. Atrial repolarisation

 

 

Q.32. Bleeding precautions like needle stick injury prevention should be followed in all of the following cases Except when the patient is:

  1. On cephalosporins
  2. Suffering from haemophilia
  3. Suffering from liver disease
  4. On anticoagulants

 

 

Q.33. The statements of beliefs and ideas, which are considered to be true, are known as:

  1. Operational definitions
  2. Assumptions
  3. Conceptual definitions
  4. Hypotheses

 

 

Q.34. The borehole latrine was introduced in India by:

  1. Rotary foundation
  2. Rockefeller foundation
  3. UNICEF
  4. Melinda gates foundation

 

 

Q.35. Hypertonicity and scissoring leg movements area expected clinical findings in:

  1. Autism
  2. Cerebral palsy
  3. Mental retardation
  4. Schizophrenia

 

 

Q.36. The nurse administers heparin BD subcutaneously for a patient in cardiogenic shock. The drug is expected to exhibit ……….. action.

  1. Anticoagulant
  2. Antidysrhythmic
  3. Ionotrope
  4. Vasopressor

 

 

Q.37. The main difference between a prokaryotic cell and an eukaryotic cell is the absence of:

  1. Plasma membrane
  2. Mitochondria
  3. True nucleus
  4. Flagella

 

 

Q.38. All of the following methods are used for the diagnosis of HIV infection in a two-month-old child Except:

  1. HIV ELISA
  2. DNA-PCR
  3. p24 antigen assay
  4. Viral culture

 

 

Q.39. The normal range for pH of blood is:

  1. 7.35-7.45
  2. 7.47-7.57
  3. 7.11-7.22
  4. 8.0-8.2

 

 

Q.40. A child with recurrent urinary tract infections is most likely to show:

  1. Vesicoureteric reflux
  2. Neurogenic bladder
  3. Renal and ureteric calculi
  4. Posterior urethral valves

 

 

Q.41. Tetracycline is used as prophylaxis for ……………….

  1. Leptospirosis
  2. Brucellosis
  3. Cholera
  4. Meningitis

 

 

Q.42. On physical examination, the nurse notes that there is separation of layers of a surgical wound. She records it as:

  1. Evisceration
  2. Herniation
  3. Prolapse
  4. Dehiscence

 

 

Q.43. The act of deliberately ending a person’s life to relieve suffering is called:

  1. Tort
  2. Libel
  3. Euthanasia
  4. Suicide

 

 

Q.44. Ms Rohini is a new Nurse Educator of a private tertiary hospital. She conducts orientation among new staff nurses in her department. Leena, one of the new staff nurses, wants to understand the channel of communication, span of control and lines of communication. Which of the following will provide this information?

  1. Policy
  2. Organisational structure
  3. Job description
  4. Manual of procedures

 

 

Q.45. The doctor has prescribed 2.5 mg of Haloperidol for an agitated patient. The medication is labeled haloperidol 10 mg/2 ml. The nurse prepares the correct dose by drawing up how many milliliters in the syringe?

  1. 0.5
  2. 0.3
  3. 0.4
  4. 0.6

 

 

Q.46. The philosophy of education in which treatment of things is based solely on their practical utility is called …………

  1. Realism
  2. Idealism
  3. Naturalism
  4. Pragmatism

 

 

Q.47. The study of culture and practices in different societies is called:

  1. Entomology
  2. Palaeontology
  3. Anthropology
  4. Ornithology

 

 

Q.48. the Hawthorne study to determine the relationship between the intensity of illuminations and workers’ productivity was done by:

  1. Elton mayo
  2. Abraham maslow
  3. Kurt Levin
  4. Mary Parker follett

 

 

Q.49. When planning care to a postpartum client with thromboembolic disease to prevent the complication of pulmonary embolism, what should be the intervention?

  1. Administer and monitor anticoagulant therapy
  2. Monitor the vital signs frequently
  3. Assess the breath sounds frequently
  4. Enforce bed-rest

 

 

Q.50. Incidence is defined as:

  1. Number of new cases occurring during a specific period.
  2. Number of old cases present
  3. Number of cases existing in a given population at a given moment
  4. Number of cases existing in a given period

 

 

 

Q.51. All of the following are side effects of rifampicin except:

  1. Dizziness
  2. Anorexia
  3. Orange-colored urine
  4. Hypertension

 

 

Q.52. The art of applying mock injuries for the purpose of training emergency response team and other medical personnel is called ………………

  1. Exhibit
  2. Specimen
  3. Moulage
  4. Model

 

 

Q.53. All of the following viruses are transmitted by respiratory route Except:

  1. RSV
  2. Rota virus
  3. Influenza virus
  4. Rhinovirus

 

 

 

Q.54. Supervision and delegation is a part of which phase of management process?

  1. Organising
  2. Controlling
  3. Planning
  4. Directing

 

 

Q.55. A sampling method which involves a random start and then proceeds with the selection of every kth element from them onwards is called ……………  (Where k=population size/sample size)

  1. Snowball sampling
  2. Systematic sampling
  3. Stratified random sampling
  4. Simple random sampling

 

 

Q.56. Rohit, aged 15 years, complains of bleeding gums. The nurse will advise him to take a diet high in:

  1. Vitamin C
  2. Vitamin B
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin D

 

 

Q.57. Which of the following is NOT a major feature of capitalism?

  1. Private property
  2. Competition
  3. Profit incentive
  4. Equitable distribution of income

 

 

Q.58. A patient with chronic renal failure is receiving Epoetin alfa. Which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication?

  1. Haematocrit 32%
  2. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm3
  3. WBC count of 6000 cells.mm3
  4. BUN of 15 mg/dl

 

 

Q.59. Which of the following is a method of killing microorganisms with their spores?

  1. Sterilisation
  2. Disinfection
  3. Flaming
  4. Incineration

 

 

Q.60. If a test is sensitive, it will be explained as:

  1. The ability of a test to correctly identify those without the disease (true negative rate)
  2. True positive in current time
  3. True positive in long time
  4. The ability of a test to correctly identify those with the disease (true positive rate)

 

 

Q.61. The leadership style developed by Kenneth Blanchard and paul hersey based on task and relationship behavior is known as:

  1. Effective leadership
  2. Transformational leadership
  3. Charismatic leadership
  4. Situational leadership

 

Q.62. Andragogy refers to:

  1. Experiential learning
  2. Child learning
  3. Adult learning
  4. Action learning

 

 

Q.63. The pacemaker of the heart is:

  1. AV node
  2. Purkinje fibres
  3. Right atrium
  4. SA node

 

Q.64. Which of the following pathophysiological processes is involved in multiple sclerosis?

  1. Destruction of the brainstem and basal ganglia in the brain
  2. Chronic inflammation of rhizomes just outside the central nervous system
  3. Degeneration of the nucleus pulposus, causing pressure on the spinal cord
  4. Development of demyelination of the myelin sheath, interfering with the nerve transmission

 

 

Q.65. The study of the distribution and determinants of a disease is called:

  1. Pathology
  2. Epidemiology
  3. Entomology
  4. Genealogy

 

 

Q.66. Which of the following is the terminal method of contraception?

  1. IUCD
  2. Subdermal implants
  3. Foam tablets
  4. Tubectomy

 

 

Q.67. Which nursing intervention is appropriate to prevent pulmonary embolus in a patient who is prescribed bed rest?

  1. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
  2. Teach the patient to move legs in bed
  3. Use the knee gatch when the client is in bed
  4. Limit the patient’s fluid intake

 

 

Q.68. A parent who copes with quarreling among young children by placing them in separate rooms is using:

  1. Time out
  2. Reinforcement
  3. Shaping
  4. Punishment

 

 

Q.69. Which of the following is NOT an Indian system of medicine?

  1. Unani
  2. Feng shui
  3. Ayurveda
  4. Homeopathy

 

 

 

Q.70. Gravida refers to which of the following descriptions?

  1. Number of times a female has been pregnant
  2. Number of fulltime a female has delivered
  3. Number of live children
  4. Number of preterm pregnancies a female has had

 

 

Q.71. While asking about the history of a patient, the nurse finds out that the patient is on a plant-based diet only. She understands that he might develop:

  1. Pellagra
  2. Megaloblastic anemia
  3. Scurvy
  4. Marasmus

 

 

 

Q.72. Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system?

  1. Increase heart rate
  2. Rest and digest
  3. Increase blood pressure
  4. Fight or flight

 

 

 

Q.73. Intravenous heparin therapy is ordered for a patient. While implementing this order, a nurse should ensure the availability of which of the following medications in the nursing unit?

  1. Potassium chloride
  2. Protamine sulphate
  3. Aminocaproic acid
  4. Vitamin K

 

 

Q.74. All of the following are vector borne diseases except:

  1. Chagas disease
  2. Malaria
  3. Filariasis
  4. Rubella

 

 

 

Q.75. A nurse enters the room of a patient with a cognitive impairment disorder and asks what day of the week it is; what the date, month and year are; and where the patient is. The nurse is attempting to assess:

  1. Perseveration
  2. Orientation
  3. Confabulation
  4. Delirium

 

 

Q.76. A patient with diabetes mellitus has glycosylated haemoglobin A level of 9%. Based on this test result, the nurse plans to teach the client about the need to:

  1. Prevent and recognize hypoglycaemia
  2. Avoid infection
  3. Take in adequate fluids
  4. Prevent and recognise hyperglycaemia

 

 

 

Q.77. Epidemiological triad includes which of the following factors?

  1. Standardised rates
  2. Agent, host and environment
  3. Rates, ratio and proportion
  4. Incidence, prevalence and trends of disease

 

 

Q.78. False sensory perceptions with no basis in reality are known as:

  1. Delusions
  2. Illusions
  3. Hallucinations
  4. Loose associations

 

Q.79. Which one of the following is NOT the psychological principle of teaching?

  1. Proceed from known to unknown
  2. Proceed from concrete to abstract
  3. Proceed from complex to simple
  4. Proceed from simple to difficult

 

 

Q.80. Which of the following should be informed to the pregnant client with genital herpes to protect the foetus?

  1. Total abstinence is necessary during pregnancy
  2. Caesarean section will be needed in the case of vaginal lesions
  3. Daily intake of acyclovir
  4. Four hourly sitz bath

 

 

Q.81. The …………………. is the largest bone in the human body

  1. Sternum
  2. Tibia
  3. Femur
  4. Stapes

 

 

Q.82. A child is admitted to the paediatric ward with suspected rheumatic arthritis. What should be an important question that a nurse should ask the parents?

  1. Did the child vomit for 4 days?
  2. Did a recent episode of pharyngitis develop?
  3. Did the fever start 3 days ago?
  4. Did the child show a lack of interest in food?

 

 

Q.83. All of the following are characteristics of FALSE labour except:

  1. No progress of contractions
  2. Relief by activity
  3. Irregular contractions
  4. Dilatation and effacement of the cervix

 

 

Q.84. A nurse teaches a pregnant client to perform kegel exercises. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the purpose of these types of excercises?

  1. The exercises will help prevent oedema
  2. The exercises will help strengthen the pelvic floor in preparation for delivery
  3. The exercises will help reduce uterine contraction
  4. The exercises will help prevent urinary tenderness

 

 

 

Q.85. All of the following are development assessment techniques except:

  1. DASII
  2. TDSC
  3. DDST
  4. MSE

 

 

Q.86. Perinatal death includes death during:

  1. 37th week of gestation to 14 days after birth
  2. Zero to one month of age
  3. Zero to 28 days of age
  4. 28th week of gestation to 7 days after birth

 

 

Q.87. The approximate increase in length in the first year of life is:

  1. 25 cm
  2. 35 cm
  3. 12 cm
  4. 22 cm

 

 

Q.88. Deficiency of which of the following neurotransmitters in the brain will cause alzheimer’s disease?

  1. Acetylcholine
  2. Serotonin
  3. GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid)
  4. Dopamine

 

 

Q.89. Cystic fibrosis is an example of

  1. Autosomal recessive disorder
  2. X linked dominant disorder
  3. Autosomal dominant disorder
  4. X linked recessive disorder

 

 

Q.90. Isolation of a child with mumps belongs to what level of prevention?

  1. Intermediate
  2. Primary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Secondary

 

 

Q.91. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is given with isoniazid (INH) because it:

  1. Provides the vitamin when isoniazid is interfering with natural vitamin synthesis
  2. Accelerates destruction of the remaining organisms after inhibition of their reproduction by isoniazid
  3. Enhances tuberculostatic effect of isoniazid
  4. Improves the immunologic response of the client

 

 

Q.92. All of the following are vector borne diseases, Except:

  1. Plague
  2. Filariasis
  3. Hepatitis
  4. Malaria

 

 

Q.93. A newborn is presented with a bloated abdomen shortly after birth with passing of less meconium. A full thickness biopsy of the rectum was carried out. Which one of the following rectal biopsy findings is most likely to be present?

  1. Thickened muscularis propria
  2. Hyalinisation of the muscular coat
  3. Lack of ganglion cells
  4. Fibrosis of submucosa

 

 

Q.94. The process by which molecules of a solvent tend to pass through a semipermeable membrane from less concentrated solution into a more concentrated one is called:

  1. Ultrafiltration
  2. Active transport
  3. Osmosis
  4. Diffusion

 

 

Q.95. A 1-month-old boy presents with failure to thrive. On examination, he shows features of congestive heart failure. The femoral pulses are feeble as compared to the brachial pulses. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:

  1. Congenital aortic stenosis
  2. Coarctation of aorta
  3. Patent ductus arteriosus
  4. Congenital aortoiliac disease

 

 

Q.96. The coverage of the population by primary health centres (PHC) in plain areas is:

  1. 5,000
  2. 20,000
  3. 30,000
  4. 40,000

 

 

Q.97. An 18-month-old infant hospitalized with a severe asthma attack is given prednisone, 15 mg po bid. The nurse should:

  1. Check the child’s eosinophil count daily
  2. Have the child rest as much as possible
  3. Prevent exposing the child to infection
  4. Keep the child NPO except for medications

 

 

Q.98. Normal respiration is also called:

  1. Apnea
  2. Orthopnea
  3. Eupnea
  4. Dyspnea

 

 

Q.99. The anterior fontanel in children closes at:

  1. One and half years of age
  2. One and half months of age
  3. Two weeks of age
  4. One month of age

 

 

Q.100. A 75-year-old patient has dementia of the Alzheimer’s type of confabulates. A nurse should understand that this patient:

  1. Pretends to be someone else
  2. Denies confusion by being jovial
  3. Fills in memory gaps with fantasy
  4. Rationalises various behaviours

 

 

Q.101. All stages of rashes are seen simultaneously in:

  1. Typhoid
  2. Chickenpox
  3. Measles
  4. Small pox

 

 

Q.102. Which of the following is NOT a modifiable risk factor in the case of diabetes?

  1. Age
  2. Salt intake
  3. Alcohol intake
  4. Obesity

 

 

Q.103. Which of the following vaccinations is NOT a part of the expanded programme of Immunisation?

  1. Measles vaccine
  2. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine
  3. Diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus (DPT) vaccine
  4. Oral poliovirus vaccines (OPV)

 

 

Q.104. The ………….. is the major muscle responsible for breathing in humans.

  1. Trapezius
  2. Diaphragm
  3. Rectus abdominis
  4. Sternocleidomastoid

 

 

Q.105. Which of the following combinations of adverse effects must be carefully monitored when administering I.V. insulin to a patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis?

  1. Hypercalcemia and hypernatremia
  2. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia
  3. Hypocalcemia and hyponatremia
  4. Hyperkalemia and hyperglycemia

 

 

 

Q.106. A patient is scheduled for a pulmonary function test. The nurse explains that during the test the respiratory therapist will ask the patient to breathe normally to measure the:

  1. Tidal volume
  2. Residual volume
  3. Total ling capacity
  4. Vital capacity

 

 

Q.107. Untwisting of the neck sustained during internal rotation is called as:

  1. Crowning
  2. Flexion
  3. Restitution
  4. Torsion

 

 

Q.108. Which organ is the primary site of haematopoiesis in the foetus before mid-pregnancy?

  1. Lung
  2. Liver
  3. Bone
  4. Spleen

 

 

Q.109. Increased nuchal translucency observed in the 13th week of fetal ultrasound is characteristic of

  1. Turner’s syndrome
  2. Hydrocephalus
  3. Klinefelter’s syndrome
  4. Down’s syndrome

 

 

Q.110. Which type of error is committed in testing a hypothesis when the researcher accepts the null hypothesis that is actually false?

  1. Type I
  2. Type III
  3. Type II
  4. Type IV

 

 

Q.111. Colles’ fractures is a fracture of the:

  1. Distal end of ulna
  2. Proximal end of radius
  3. Distal end of radius
  4. Shaft of humerus

 

 

Q.112. Polyvalent vaccines consist of:

  1. More strains of the same species
  2. A single organism
  3. More strains of different species
  4. A single species

 

 

Q.113. Which of the following is a long continuous strand of DNA that carries genetic information?

  1. Ribosome
  2. Nucleus
  3. Chromosome
  4. Mitochondria

 

 

Q.114. The minimum age for marriage of girls in india according to the national population policy is:

  1. 18 years
  2. 22 years
  3. 20 years
  4. 16 years

 

 

Q.115. How many moments of hand hygiene have been laid down by WHO?

  1. 7
  2. 8
  3. 6
  4. 5

 

Q.116. Which of the following is the principle mode of heat exchange in an incubator?

  1. Radiation
  2. Conduction
  3. Evaporation
  4. Convection

 

 

Q.117. An Intrathecal injection administers a drug through the:

  1. Superficial vein
  2. Knee
  3. Cardiac area
  4. Spine

 

 

Q.118. ASHA workers work at the ……….. level.

  1. District
  2. Community
  3. Village
  4. Primary health centre (PHC)

 

 

 

Q.119. Which of the following is the method for managing foreign body airway obstruction?

  1. Jaw thrust maneuver
  2. Heimlich maneuver
  3. Epley maneuver
  4. Valsalva maneuver

 

 

Q.120. A pregnant client tells a nurse that she found some clear fluid during urination. The nurse immediately assesses the perineum and finds the umbilical cord coming out. The priority nursing action is:

  1. Shift to the emergency room
  2. Recording and reporting in nursing notes
  3. Start oxygen therapy
  4. Place the client in the trendelenbrg position

 

 

 

Q.121. A patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy is vomiting frequently. The drug of choice in this case is:

  1. Ergotamine
  2. Ondansetron
  3. Ciometidine
  4. Bromocriptine

 

 

Q.122. Which of the following vaccines should NOT be kept in a freezer?

  1. Polio
  2. Diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus (DPT) vaccine
  3. Measles
  4. Measles, Mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine

 

 

Q.123. What would you monitor in a patient taking high doses of acetaminophen over a prolonged period?

  1. Liver function
  2. GI irritation
  3. Prothrombin time
  4. Kidney function

 

 

Q.124. Which of the following drugs is used for the treatment of nocturnal enuresis?

  1. Imipramine
  2. Chlorpromazine
  3. Trazodone
  4. Sertraline

 

 

Q.125. Exaggerated convexity in thoracic region is called ………

  1. Kyphosis
  2. Lordosis
  3. Myelitis
  4. Scoliosis

 

 

 

Q.126. Compression to ventilation ratio in adults with two rescuers is:

  1. 2:30
  2. 30:2
  3. 15:2
  4. 15:1

 

Q.127. Brushfields spots, protruded tongue and single palmar crease are characteristic features of:

  1. Down syndrome
  2. Edwards syndrome
  3. Patau syndrome
  4. Turner syndrome

 

 

Q.128. Reed-Sternberg cells in nodes are found in:

  1. Multiple myeloma
  2. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  3. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  4. Leukaemia

 

 

 

Q.129. Incision made into the perineum to enlarge the vaginal outlet and facilitate delivery is called:

  1. Vaginoplasty
  2. Vaginotomy
  3. Episiotomy
  4. Periniotomy

 

Q.130. Coombs test is performed to predict which complication in a foetus?

  1. Physiologic hyperbilirubinaemia
  2. Metabolic disorder
  3. Acute haemolytic disease
  4. Genetic thalassaemia

 

Q.131. The four metaparadigms of nursing theory are:

  1. Person, Health, Environment and nursing
  2. Person, Health, communication and Nursing
  3. Person, wellness, security and nursing
  4. Nursing, Health, communication and person

 

Q.132. McBurney’s point of tenderness is present in:

  1. Acute appendicitis
  2. Acute tonsillitis
  3. Acute cholecystitis
  4. Acute gastritis

 

Q.133. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the preventive measures of genital tract infection?

  1. I can douche anytime I want
  2. I should avoid the use of condoms
  3. I can wear my tight-fitting jeans
  4. I should wear underwear with a cotton panel liner

 

 

Q.134. Stunting refers to:

  1. Low weight than what is appropriate for a certain height
  2. Low BMI
  3. Low weight than what is appropriate for a certain age
  4. Low height than what is appropriate for a certain age

 

 

Q.135. Which correlation is the strongest?

  1. +0.90
  2. -0.95
  3. +0.10
  4. -1.00

 

Q.136. The best method for early diagnosis of cervical cancer is:

  1. PAP smear
  2. Colposcopy and biopsy
  3. Health education
  4. HPV vaccine

 

 

 

Q.137. An 11-year-old child with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is to be on continued aspirin medication at home. Before discharge from the hospital, the nurse should teach the child and parents to closely monitor for the toxic effects of this drug, which include:

  1. Hypothermia
  2. Tinnitus
  3. Jaundice
  4. Diarrhoea

 

 

 

Q.138. Unshakeable and persistent ideas are called:

  1. Compulsions
  2. Delusions
  3. Hallucinations
  4. Illusions

 

 

Q.139. Lactose is made up of:

  1. Glucose and galactose
  2. Glucose
  3. Glucose and fructose
  4. Fructose

 

 

 

Q.140. The management theorist ……….  Developed the ‘14 Principles of Management’.

  1. Henri fayol
  2. Max weber
  3. Fredrick taylor
  4. Mary follet

 

 

Q.141. Use of punishment and coercion is used in which style of leadership?

  1. Democratic
  2. Participative
  3. Authoritarian
  4. Laisseze-faire

 

 

Q.142. Non-stress test is said to be normal if there are:

  1. 2 or more FHR accelerations during a 20 min period
  2. 2 or more FHR accelerations in a 40 min period
  3. No decelerations during a 40 min observation
  4. No accelerations during a 40 min observation

 

 

 

Q.143. In statistics, the spread of dispersion is described with the help of:

  1. Mode
  2. Mean
  3. Standard deviation
  4. Median

 

 

Q.144. Ophthalmic medications should be instilled at:

  1. Lower conjunctival sac
  2. The cornea of the eye
  3. Upper conjunctival sac
  4. The edge of the eye

 

 

 

Q.145. To decrease bradyarrhythmias in children during endotracheal intubation, succinylcholine is given along with:

  1. Xylocaine
  2. Adrenaline
  3. Vecuronium
  4. Atropine sulphate

 

 

Q.146. The reliability of a measuring tool has all of the following aspect except:

  1. Stability
  2. Efficiency
  3. Equivalence
  4. Internal consistency

 

 

Q.147. When is folic acid started in antenatal period to prevent congenital disorder in an infant?

  1. Before conception
  2. During the third trimester
  3. During the second trimester
  4. During the first trimester

 

 

Q.148. When administering an IM injection to an infant, the nurse in charge should use which site?

  1. Ventrogluteal
  2. Vastus lateralis
  3. Deltoid
  4. Dorsogluteal

 

 

Q.149. The part of the mind that distinguishes right from wrong and acts as a censor of behavior is known as:

  1. Libido
  2. Id
  3. Super-ego
  4. Ego

 

 

Q.150. Which of the following is an antidote for acetaminophen poisoning?

  1. N-Acetyl cysteine
  2. Deferoxamine
  3. Physostigmine
  4. Digiband

 

 

Q.151. Billroth i and billroth ii are surgical procedures done for:

  1. Gastric cancer
  2. Pancreatic cancer
  3. Breast cancer
  4. Lung cancer

 

 

Q.152. Kayser-Fleisher (golden brown) ring at the limbus of cornea seen with a hand lens is observed in:

  1. Down’s syndrome
  2. Cataract
  3. Glaucoma
  4. Wilson’s disease

 

 

Q.153. A patient says to a nurse, “Everyone would be better off if I wasn’t alive.” Which nursing diagnosis would be made based on this statement?

  1. Risk for self-directed violence
  2. Ineffective coping
  3. Impaired social interaction
  4. Disturbed thought processes

 

 

Q.154. Which of the following is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis against rheumatic fever?

  1. Erythromycin
  2. Benzathine penicillin
  3. Procaine penicillin
  4. Penicillin V

 

 

Q.155. Venereal Disease research laboratory (VDRL) test is used to diagnose:

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Pneumonia
  3. Syphilis
  4. AIDS

 

Q.156. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s records and notes that the patient has renal disorder. The nurse expects to note which of the following laboratory results?

  1. Decreased serum potassium level
  2. Decreased serum phosphate level
  3. Elevated serum creatinine level
  4. Increased haemoglobin level

 

 

Q.157. The taxonomy of educational objectives was presented in 1956 by:

  1. Max webber
  2. Benjamin S Bloom
  3. BF skinner
  4. Socrates

 

Q.158. A type of educational assessment which is generally carried out throughout a course or project is termed as a/an ………………. Assessment.

  1. Informal
  2. Summative
  3. Criterion -referenced
  4. Formative

 

 

Q.159. All of the following are vitamin deficiencies in children Except:

  1. Rickets
  2. Simple goitre
  3. Megaloblastic anaemia
  4. Bitot’s spots

 

 

Q.160. A nurse should understand that electroconvulsive therapy is primarily used in psychiatric care for the treatment of:

  1. Anxiety
  2. Schizophrenia
  3. Depression
  4. Mania

 

 

Q.161. The name of the nursing diagnosis is linked to the etiology with the phrase:

  1. “As manifested by”
  2. “related to”
  3. “evidenced by”
  4. “due to”

 

 

Q.162. A nurse is doing endotracheal suctioning. During the procedure, the nurse notes decreasing heart rate on the monitor. What should be the first priority action?

  1. Continue to suction
  2. Stop the procedure and reoxygenate the patient
  3. Ensure that suction is limited to 15 seconds
  4. Notify the physician immediately

 

 

Q.163. Cecum, colon and rectum are a part of:

  1. Small intestine
  2. Large intestine
  3. Pleural cavity
  4. Peritoneum

 

 

Q.164. Hemorrhagic disease of the newborn is caused by the deficiency of which vitamin?

  1. Vitamin D
  2. Vitamin A
  3. Vitamin K
  4. Vitamin C

 

 

Q.165. A nurse is conducting a dietary assessment of a patient who is on a vegan diet. The nurse should plan to provide dietary teaching focused on food items high in which vitamin that may be absent in a vegan diet?

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B12
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin E

 

 

Q.166. Dusky hue of the vestibule and anterior vaginal wall visible at about 8th week of pregnancy is called as:

  1. Goodell’s sign
  2. Hegar’s sign
  3. Chadwick’s sign
  4. Palmer’s sign

 

 

Q.167. The process in which a nasogastric tube is inserted, the stomach is flushed and ingested substances are removed through the tube is called:

  1. Colonic irrigation
  2. Gastric lavage
  3. Decompensation
  4. Gastric gavage

 

 

Q.168. A nurse is describing the process of foetal circulation to a client during a prenatal visit. The nurse accurately tells the client that foetal circulation consists of:

  1. Arteries carrying oxygenated blood to the foetus
  2. Veins carrying deoxygenated blood to the foetus
  3. Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein
  4. Two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery

 

 

Q.169. The amount of blood ejected by each ventricular contraction is celled the:

  1. Cardiac output
  2. Stroke volume
  3. Tidal volume
  4. Expiratory reserve

 

 

Q.170. The chief distinguishing feature of psychotic disorders is:

  1. Overwhelming anxiety
  2. Antisocial conduct
  3. Obsessive behavior
  4. Confusion between fantasy and reality

 

 

Q.171. The …………… hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary

  1. Luteinizing
  2. Oxytocin
  3. Melanocyte secreting
  4. Prolactin

 

 

Q.172. Which of the following organs is affected in gastrooesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

  1. Duodenum
  2. Lower oesophageal sphincter
  3. Diaphragm
  4. Pylorus

 

 

Q.173. The nurse is teaching a group of patients about the mood-stabilising medication, lithium carbonate. Which of the following medications should she instruct the patients to avoid because of the increased risk of lithium toxicity?

  1. Hypoglycemic agents
  2. Antibiotics
  3. Diuretics
  4. Antacids

 

 

Q.174. What are the basic structure units of proteins?

  1. Fatty acids
  2. Sucrose
  3. Amino acids
  4. Peptides

 

 

Q.175. A patient with renal failure having edema is most likely to receive:

  1. Laxative
  2. Beta blockers
  3. Antidiuretics
  4. Diuretics

 

 

 

Q.176. “Man is a social animal” – Who said so?

  1. Karl Marx
  2. Aristotle
  3. Plato
  4. Cornte

 

 

Q.177. The movement of the head and shoulders is controlled by the:

  1. Abducens nerve
  2. Accessory nerve
  3. Hypoglossal nerve
  4. Glossopharyngeal nerve

 

 

Q.178. Cracked pot sound elicited while skull percussion indicative of increased intracranial tension is known as:

  1. Homans’ sign
  2. Romberg sign
  3. Peroneal sign
  4. Macewen’s sign

 

 

Q.179. Chloroquine exhibits ………….. action.

  1. Antifungal
  2. Antiamoebic
  3. Antimalarial
  4. Antiviral

 

 

 

Q.180. A patient who abuses alcohol and cocaine tells a nurse that he only uses substances because of his stressful marriage and difficult job. Which defence mechanism is this patient using?

  1. Rationalisation
  2. Displacement
  3. Projection
  4. Sublimation

 

 

Q.181. Which of the following is one of the most popular and useful ways of showing activities displayed against time where on the left side is a list of the activities represented by a bar and along the top is a time scale reflecting the start date, duration and end date of the activity?

  1. Nomogram
  2. Gantt chart
  3. PERT analysis
  4. Rotation plan

 

 

 

Q.182. Linear burrowing of a mite at finger webs, wrists, elbow, ankles and penis is seen in case of:

  1. Impetigo
  2. Psoriasis
  3. Scabies
  4. Herpes zoster

 

 

Q.183. Which of the following communication techniques should be avoided by nurses?

  1. Belittling
  2. Validating
  3. Reflecting
  4. Listening

 

 

Q.184. A patient is suspected of having a myocardial infarction. The nurse assesses for elevations in which of the following isoenzyme values reported with the creatine kinase level?

  1. MB
  2. BB
  3. MM
  4. MK

 

 

 

Q.185. When examining a patient who is paralysed below the T4 level, the medical-surgical nurse expects to find:

  1. Impaired diaphragmatic function requiring ventilator support
  2. Flaccidity of the upper extremities
  3. Independent use of the upper extremities and efficient cough
  4. Hyperreflexia and spasticity of the upper extremities

 

Q.186. The nurse should hold the syringe almost flat against the patient’s skin (at about a 15° angle), with the bevel up while administering a:

  1. Intramuscular injection
  2. Intradermal injection
  3. Intrathecal injection
  4. Subcutaneous injection

 

 

Q.187. Rechannelling of socially unacceptable drives into more constructive activities is called:

  1. Projection
  2. Sublimation
  3. Hallucination
  4. Displacement

 

 

 

Q.188. The four terms that are required to construct a PERT network are events, activities, ………. and ………

  1. Critical path; estimated time
  2. Crucial path; slack time
  3. Crucial path; earliest date
  4. Slack time; critical path

 

 

 

Q.189. Which of the following is NOT a probable sign of pregnancy?

  1. Jacquemier’s sign
  2. Fetal heart rate detected by a non-electric device
  3. Chadwick’s sign
  4. Uterine contraction

 

 

 Q.190. Which blood group can be administered to a patient in emergency when his blood group is not known?

  1. O positive
  2. AB positive
  3. AB negative
  4. O negative

 

 

Q.191. Which of the following statements about acid base balance is INCORRECT?

  1. Hyperventilation causes respiratory alkalosis
  2. Overuse of antacids causes metabolic acidosis
  3. Hypoventilation causes respiratory acidosis
  4. Loss of gastric juices causes metabolic alkalosis

 

 

Q.192. Which of the following contains deoxygenated blood?

  1. Aorta
  2. Pulmonary artery
  3. Subclavian artery
  4. Pulmonary vein

 

 

Q.193. Relationship between toe variables like age and weight can be presented using a ……….

  1. Scatter diagram
  2. Bar diagram
  3. Pie diagram
  4. Histogram

 

 

Q.194. Ms swati wants to influence the customary way of thinking and behaving that is shared by the members of the department. What is this termed as?

  1. Cultural network
  2. Organisational structure
  3. Organisational chart
  4. Organisational culture

 

 

Q.195. Which of the following tubes is used to manage upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage due to oesophageal varices?

  1. Jackson-Pratt drain
  2. Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
  3. T tube
  4. Penrose drain

 

 

Q.196. Which of the following drugs is the antidote for magnesium toxicity?

  1. Calcium gluconate
  2. Vitamin K
  3. Naloxone
  4. Hydralazine

 

Q.197. The nurse, recognizing that digitalis preparations promote diuresis, should evaluate patients for a depletion of:

  1. Phosphate
  2. Calcium
  3. Sodium
  4. Potassium

 

 

Q.198. Evisceration refers to:

  1. Separation of wound edges
  2. Eruption of bowel through surgical site
  3. Healing of surgical site
  4. Darkening of wound edges

 

 

Q.199. Pain in calf on dorsiflexion of the foot (Homans’ sign) may indicate:

  1. Thrombophlebitis
  2. Aneurysm
  3. Lymphedema
  4. Cellulitis

 

 

Q.200. A client is suffering from diabetes mellitus. Which of the following symptoms indicate hyperglycemia?

  1. Diaphoresis, dizziness, hunger
  2. Headache, blurred vision, nausea
  3. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
  4. Oliguria, fluid retention, shortness of breath

 

 

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