Banaras Hindu University (BHU), Varanasi Nursing officer Question Paper & Answer Keys 2018 Download
BHU Nursing Officer Question Paper 2018
Q.1) Nasal Cannula is used for:
(A) Oxygen administration
(B) Clearance of secretions
(C) Feeding milk
(D) Both (A) & (B)
Correct Answer: Oxygen administration
Q.2) Which drug is given through nebulization as well as the intravenous route?
(A) Salbutamal
(B) Budesonide
(C) 3%NaCl
(D) Hydrocartisone
Correct Answer: 3%NaCl
Q.3) Phototherapy is used for the treatment of:
(A) Cyanosis
(B) Jaundice
(C) Diarrhoea
(D) Eczema
Correct Answer: Jaundice
Q.4) Exclusive breastfeeding is given up to:
(A) 4 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months
Correct Answer: 6 months
Q.5) A loose cuff of BP Instrument gives:
(A) Accurate reading
(B) Falsely higher reading
(C) Falsely lower reading BP
(D) No effect on reading
Correct Answer: Falsely higher reading
Q.6) Diuretics are given at what time?
(A) Morning
(B) Noon
(C) Evening
(D) Night
Correct Answer: Morning
Q.7) Mattress used for Patient care should be:
(A) Thick and Hard
(B) Thin and Soft.
(C) Thick and Firm
(D) Thin and Elastic
Correct Answer: Thick and Firm
Q.8) The body part to be pressed after intramuscular injection with which substance?
(A) Dry Cotton Swab
(B) Wet Cotton Swab
(C) Spirit Cotton Swab
(D) Povidone-Iodine Cotton Swab
Correct Answer: Dry Cotton Swab
Q.9) Subcutaneous injection is given at which angle?
(A) 15°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 90°
Correct Answer: 45°
Q.10) Which is incorrectly matched in relation to temperature of solution?
(A) Cleaning purpose – 104°F
(B) Thermal effect – 110-115°F
(C) Reducing temperature – 80-90°F
(D) Gastric lavage – 70-80°F
Correct Answer: Gastric lavage – 70-80°F
Q.11) Pre-operative preparation of skin is done by application of which substan?
(A) Hydrogen peroxide
(B) Mupirocin
(C) 2% Gluteraldehyde
(D) 70% Alcohol
Correct Answer: 70% Alcohol
Q.12) Temperature of water for ‘Sitz Bath’ is:
(A) 30-34°C
(B) 37-39°C
(C) 43-46°C
(D) 48
Correct Answer: 43-46°C
Q.13) ICD-X classification’ is used in:
(A) Central Sterile Supply Department (CSSD)
(B) Operation Theatre
(C) Medical Record Department
(D) Blood Bank
Correct Answer: Medical Record Department
Q.14) Which substance is used in Fumigation?
(A) Potassium Permanganate
(B) Hydrogen Peroxide
(C) Bleaching Powder
(D) Povidone Idoine
Correct Answer: Potassium Permanganate
Q.15) Human anatornical organs are kept in which coloured container in Biomedical Waste Disposal?
(A) Red
(B) Yellow
(C) White
(D) Blue
Correct Answer: Yellow
Q.16) Sodium flupride vial is used for measurement of which substance in blood?
(A) Glucose
(B) Urea
(C) Hb1 Ac
(D) Hematocrit
Correct Answer: Glucose
Q.17) Enema is given in which position of patient?
(A) Supine
(B) Prone
(C) Right lateral
(D) Left lateral
Correct Answer: Left lateral
Q.18) Normally Intercostal drainage tube is kept for how many days?
(A) 1-2
(B) 3-5
(C) 5-10
(D) 10-15
Correct Answer: 3-5
Q.19) Which fluid is given in ’hypovolemic shock’?
(A) 5% Dextrose
(B) 0.9% NaCl
(C) 5% Dextrose NaCl
(D) 10% Dextrose
Correct Answer: 0.9% NaCl
Q.20) Choose the correct matching:
(A) T-Piece – Airway adjunct
(B) Mackintosh – CO2 detector
(C) Kidney tray – Blood storage
(D) Pulse Oximeter – Recording of Pulse rate
Correct Answer: T-Piece – Airway adjunct
Q.21) Which gauge diameter of needle is used for ’intradermal injection’?
(A) 21
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) 26
Correct Answer: 26
Q.22) Vitamin K injection in newborn is given at which site?
(A)Right Deltoid
(B) Left Deltoid
(C) Mid-Thigh
(D) Buttock
Correct Answer: Mid-Thigh
Q.23) ‘Pneumatic Bed’ is used for prevention of:
(A) Tongue injury
(B) Bed Sore
(C) Muscular contracture
(D) Foot abscess
Correct Answer: Bed Sore
Q.24) The difference between rectal and oral temperature is by:
(A) 1°F
(B) 2°F
(C) 0.5°F
(D) 1°C
Correct Answer: 1°F
Q.25) The landmark for measuring the length of nasogastric tube is:
(A) Nose-Epigastrium
(B) Tragus-Epigastrium
(C) Nose-Tragus-Epigastrium
(D) Mammary line-Epigastrium
Correct Answer: Nose-Tragus-Epigastrium
Q.26) One of the primary nursing objectives in a client with a CVA is the maintenance of the airway. To achieve this objective the nurse should initially place the client in the:
(A) Prone position
(B) Lareral position
(C) Supine position
(D) Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: Lareral position
Q.27) An accurate blood pressure of a client can be obtained by:
(A) A cuff that covers the upper one-third of the client’s arm
(B) Positioning the cuff approximately 4″ above the antecubital space
(C) Use of cuff that is wide enough to cover two-thirds of the client’s arm
(D) Identify the ‘Korotkoff sounds’ and take a systolic reading at 10 mmHg after the first sound.
Correct Answer: Use of cuff that is wide enough to cover two-thirds of the client’s arm
Q.28) A client develops a temperature of 102 degrees Fahrenheit (38.8 degrees Celsius), following open-heart surgery. The nurse notifies the physician because the elevated temperature indicates:
(A) An increase in the cardiac output
(B) Cerebral edema
(C) A forerunner of hemorrhage
(D) Possible diaphoresis and chilling
Correct Answer: An increase in the cardiac output
Q.29) The most common cause of spontaneous abortion is:
(A) Physical trauma
(B) Unresolved stress
(C) Congenital defects
(D) Germplasm defects
Correct Answer: Germplasm defects
Q.30) When a nurse sees a baby in respiratory distress from apparent mucus, the first nursing action is to:
(A) Carefully slap the infant’s back
(B) Thump the chest and start cardiopulmonary resuscitation
(C) Pick the baby up by the feet
(D) Call the core team
Correct Answer: Pick the baby up by the feet
Q.31) When performing a colostomy irrigation the nurse inserts the catheter into the ‘ stoma upto:
(A) 5 cm (2 inches)
(B) 10 cm (4 inches)
(C) 15 cm (6 inches)
(D) 20 cm (8 inches)
Correct Answer: 10 cm (4 inches)
Q.32) While administering an enema the maximum safe height at which the container of fluid can be held is:
(A) 30 cm (12 inch)
(B) 32.5 cm
(C) 45 cm
(D) 66 cm BHU Nursing Exam Paper
Correct Answer: 45 cm
Q.33) Infection from retention catheters can best be prevented by
(A) Cleansing the perineum
(B) Encouraging adequate fluid
(C) Irrigating the catheter once daily
(D) Cleansing around the meatus periodically
Correct Answer: Irrigating the catheter once daily
Q.34) Radiation therapy for cancer of the prostate may cause bladder irritability, a sign of this complication would probably be:
(A) Dysuria
(B) Polyuria
(C) Dribbling
(D) Hematuria
Correct Answer: Dysuria
Q.35) Soon after the admission of a client to the hospital with head injuries, the temperature rises to 102.2 degrees Fahrenheit (39 degrees Celsius). The suggests injury to the:
(A) Pallidum
(B) Thalamus
(C) Temporal lobe
(D) Hypothalamus
Correct Answer: Hypothalamus
Q.36) Diabetes insipidus’ is a deficiency of which hormone?
(A) Atrial natriuretic peptide
(B) Vasopressin
(C) Aldosterone
(D) Insulin
Correct Answer: Vasopressin
Q.37) The agency which has been supporting the national tuberculosis control program – of India is:
(A) IRCS
(B) SIDA
(C) DANIDA
(D) UNICEF
Correct Answer: DANIDA
Q.38) Which of the following is not a primary prevention?
(A) Pulse polio immunization
(B) Vitamin A supplementation
(C) Breast self-examination for tumor
(D) Isoniazid (INH) to a baby breastfed by sputum positive Tubercular mother
Correct Answer: Breast self-examination for tumor
Q.39) The ’coronary care unit’ nurse draws an arterial blood sample to assess a client for acidosis. A normal pH of arterial blood is:
(A) 7.0
(B) 7.42
(C) 7.30
(D) 7.50
Correct Answer: 7.42
Q.40) Following surgery for repair of an inguinal hernia, the nurse establishes a postoperative fluid intake goal for the client. The most appropriate amount would be:
(A) 500-700 mL/day
(B) 1000-1500 mL/day
(C) 2000-3000 mL/day
(D) 3000-3500 mL/day
Correct Answer: 2000-3000 mL/day
Q.41) Which gauge diameter of needle is used for intradermal injection?
(A) 21
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) 26
Correct Answer: 26
Q.42) Doses of Vitamin-A solution:
(A) 2,00,000 IU
(B) 2,30,000 IU
(C) 5,00,000 IU BHU Nursing Exam Paper
(D) 1,50,000 IU
Correct Answer: 2,00,000 IU
Q.43) “Avulsed teeth” should be placed in
(A) Normal saline.
(B) Coldwater
(C) Milk
(D) Warm water
Correct Answer: Milk
Q.44) How many bones makes up a newborn skull?
(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 5
Correct Answer: 5
Q.45) You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:
(A) 8 to 12 months of age
(B) 20 to 24 months of age
(C) 16 to 20 months of age
(D) 12 to 16 months of age
Correct Answer: 8 to 12 months of age
Q.46) Indian Nursing Council was established in the year:
(A) 1848
(B) 1950
(C) 1923
(D) 1947
Correct Answer: 1947
Q.47) A clinical situation in which the increased release of erythropoietin would be, expected is:
(A) Hypoxemia
(B) Hypotension
(C) Hyperkalemia
(D) Fluid overload
Correct Answer: Hypoxemia
Q.48) A priority nursing intervention for the care of a terminally ill patient diagnosed with metastatic cancer is:
(A) Maintaining bowel function
(B) Alleviating and relieving pain
(C) Preventing respiratory arrest
(D) Managing chemotherapy
Correct Answer: Alleviating and relieving pain
Q.49) A client with COPD has ‘secondary polycythemia’ the nursing diagnoses that would be included in the care plan is:
(A) Fluid volume deficit related to blood loss
(B) Impaired tissue perfusion related to thrombosis
(C) Activity intolerance related to dyspnea
(D) The risk for infection related to suppressed immune response
Correct Answer: Impaired tissue perfusion related to thrombosis
Q.50) A blood transfusion should be started at how many macro-drops per minute and for how long time?
(A) 25-50 drops for 15 mins.
(B) 20 drops 10 mins.
(C) 25 – 50 drops for 15 mins.
(D) 120 drops for 15 mins.
Correct Answer: 25 – 50 drops for 15 mins.
Q.51) Which of the following IUDs belongs to GPU IUDs?
(A) Cu-T-200
(B) Lippes Loop
(C) Cu-T-380 A
(D) ML-250
Correct Answer: ML-250
Q.52) Janani Suraksha Yojna has been started under:
(A) CSSM
(B) NRHM
(C) MCH
(D) ICDS BHU Nursing Exam Paper
Correct Answer: NRHM
Q.53) When administering an IM injection to an infant, the nurse should use which site?
(A) Deltoid
(B) Dorsoglutea!
(C) Ventrogluteal
(D) Vastus lateralis
Correct Answer: Vastus lateralis
Q.54) Side effect of Haemophilus influenzae is:
(A) Generalized rash
(B) Urticaria
(C) Lethargy
(D) Low-grade fever
Correct Answer: Urticaria
Q.55) A client with a ventroperitoneal VP shunt present with a sign and symptoms of restlessness, headache, blurred vision, body ache, and wide pulse, pressure, the nurse should suspect the child has:
(A) Brain tumor
(B) Increase intracranial pressure
(C) Loss of consciousness
(D) Sleep pattern disturbance
Correct Answer: Increase intracranial pressure
Q.56) Reduce speech production is termed as:
(A) Poverty of speech
(B) Mutism
(C) Poverty of ideation
(D) Echolalia
Correct Answer: Mutism
Q.57) One of the complication of hyperemesis gravidarum is:
(A) Increased vomiting
(B) Dehydration
(C) Korsakoffs psychosis
(D) Low blood pressure
Correct Answer: Korsakoffs psychosis
Q.58) A nurse is assessing a client with ‘pregnancy induced hypertension, the nurse expects the client blood pressure to be
(A) 150/100 mmHg while standing and sitting
(B) Elevated and accompanied by a headache
(C) Above the baseline and fluctuating at each reading
(D) 30/15 mmHg over the baseline on two occasions six hours apart
Correct Answer: 30/15 mmHg over the baseline on two occasions six hours apart
Q.59) Which immunity is affected by HIV infection ?
(A) Natural immunity
(B) Active immunity
(C) Cellular immunity
(D) Humoral immunity
Correct Answer: Cellular immunity
Q.60) Multi-Drug Resistant (MDR) tuberculosis treatment involve all drugs except:
(A) Kanamycin
(B) Pyrazinamide
(C) Rifampicin
(D) Ethambutol
Correct Answer: Rifampicin
Q.61) The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in the community is:
(A) Sputum examination
(B) Mass miniature radiography
(C) Tuberculin Test
(D) Clinical Examination
Correct Answer: Sputum examination
Q.62) Mini-mental status examination does not include:
(A) Cognition
(B) Perception
(C) Insight
(D) History of psychiatric disorder
Correct Answer: History of psychiatric disorder
Q.63) Prophylactic dose of Folic Acid in pregnancy is:
(A) 500 microgram
(B) 1 mg
(C) 2 mg
(D) 4 mg
Correct Answer: 500 microgram
Q.64) Sunken fontanelle is a sign of
(A) Down syndrome
(B) Nephrotic syndrome
(C) Turner syndrome
(D) Dehydration
Correct Answer: Dehydration
Q.65) Weight of placenta is:
(A) 50 gm
(B) 200 gm
(C) 450 gm
(D) 500 gm
Correct Answer: 500 gm
Q.66) Which of the following drugs is used to treat postoperative shivering
(A) Ondansetron
(B) Diclofenac Sodium
(C) Pethidine
(D) Paracetamol
Correct Answer: Pethidine
Q.67) Prostaglandin analogues are used in
(A) Induction of labour
(B) Induction of abortion
(C) Management of PPH
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: All the above
Q.68) ‘APGAR Score’ is a measure of all except:
(A) Respiratory status
(B) Neurological status
(C) Nephrological status
(D) Circulatory status
Correct Answer: Nephrological status
Q.69) Which is the most frequently used gas for laparoscopy?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Helium
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Oxygen
Correct Answer: Carbon dioxide
Q.70) What is to be addressed first in a case of polytrauma?
(A) Circulation
(B) Blood pressure,
(C) Airway
(D) Neurology
Correct Answer: Airway
Q.71) For MTP, consent is taken from:
(A) Wife only
(B) Husband only
(C) Both
(D) None
Correct Answer: Wife only
Q.72) What is the average weight gain of the neonate per day?
(A) 25-30 gm
(B) 25-30 gm
(C) 50 – 60 gm
(D) 100-150 gm
Correct Answer: 25-30 gm
Q.73) Breast milk is rich in all except:
(A) Lactose
(B) PUFA
(C) Sodium
(D) Lactalbumin
Correct Answer: Sodium
Q.74) All of the following are part of treatment of Scabies, except:
(A) Topical Permethrin
(B) Oral Ivermectin
(C) Oral antihistaminics
(D) Long term oral steroids
Correct Answer: Long term oral steroids
Q.75) Mouth to mouth respiration provides what percentage of Oxygen?
(A) 10
(B) 16
(C) 21
(D) 100 BHU Nursing Exam Paper
Correct Answer: 16
Q.76) Heat Stroke is:
(A) Heat cramps
(B) Heat collapse
(C) Heat exhaustion
(D) Heat hyperthermia
Correct Answer: Heat hyperthermia
Q.77) True about ‘dying declaration’ is:
(A) More important than dying deposition
(B) Can be taken in the presence of Magistrate only
(C) Taken in presence of two witnesses
(D) Has to be taken under oath
Correct Answer: Can be taken in the presence of Magistrate only
Q.78) Most common nosocomial infection is:
(A) S. aureus
(B) Pseudomonas
(C) Listeria
(D) S. pyogenes
Correct Answer: S. aureus
Q.79) Which is the complication of blood transfusion?
(A) Hyponatremia
(B) Hyperkalemia
(C) Hypercalcemia
(D) Increased Serum Albumin
Correct Answer: Hyperkalemia
Q.80) Pre-anesthetic medication is given to:
(A) Reduce anxiety and fear
(B) Reduction of secretion of saliva
(C) Prevent undesirable reflexes
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above
Q.81) HIV post-exposure prophylaxis should be started within:
(A) 1-2 hours
(B) 14 hours
(C) 18 hours
(D) 72 hours
Correct Answer: 1-2 hours
Q.82) Which vitamin deficiency occurs in patients taking first line anti tubercular drugs?
(A) Niacin
(B) Pyridoxine
(C) Ascorbate
(D) Thiamine
Correct Answer: Pyridoxine
Q.83) Snellen’s Chart is read from a distance of:
(l) 6 feet
(B) 14 feet
(C) 20 feet
(D) 24 feet
Correct Answer: 20 feet
Q.84) Significant weight loss is:
(A) 5% over 6 to 12 months
(B) 10% over 6 to 12 months
(C) 5% over 6 weeks
(D) 10% over 6 weeks
Correct Answer: 5% over 6 to 12 months
Q.85) Most common ‘shock’ in children is:
(A) Hypovolemic
(B) Cardiogenic
(C) Septic
(D) Neurogenic
Correct Answer: Hypovolemic
Q.86) Most common site for ‘atopic dermatitis’ is:
(A) Scalp
(B) Trunk
(C) Popliteal fossa
(D) Knees
Correct Answer: Popliteal fossa
Q.87) Which is a topical way of drug administration?
(A) Inhaled steroid
(B) Transdermal patch
(C) Sublingual NTG
(D) Rectal Diazepam
Correct Answer: Inhaled steroid
Q.88) Correct order in labor is:
(i) Flexion
(ii) Crowing
(iii) External rotation
(iv) Restitution
(A) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)
(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(C) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i)
(D) (ii)-(iv)-(i)-(iii)
Correct Answer: (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Q.89) Treatment of severe dehydration is:
(A) Start colloids immediately
(B) Start Ringer’s Lactate immediately
(C) Combination of 5% Dextrose with Ringer’s Lactate
(D) Start DNS immediately
Correct Answer: Start Ringer’s Lactate immediately
Q.90) Route of DPT vaccine is:
(A) Oral
(B) Subcutaneous
(C) Intramuscular
(D) Intravenous
Correct Answer: Intramuscular
Q.91) Kangaroo Mother Care – which of the following is ti lie?
(A) Can be done by father also
(B) Indicated for LBW babies
(C) Effective thermal control All of the above
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above
Q.92) Propulsive stage in labor in multipara is:
(A) 10 min
(B) 20 min
(C) 40 min BHU Nursing Exam Paper
(D) 1 hour
Correct Answer: 20 min
Q.93) Drug not given in pregnancy is:
(A) Inhibitors
(B) Penicillin
(C) Methyldopa
(D)Labetalol
Correct Answer: Inhibitors
Q.94) Most common cause of ‘acute otitis media’ is:
(A) H. influenzae
(B) S. pneumoniae
(C) S. aureus
(D) Pseudomonas
Correct Answer: S. pneumoniae
Q.95) Zinc deficiency is characterized by all except:
(A) Poor vision
(B) Diarrhoea
(C) Dermatitis
(D) Hypogonadism
Correct Answer: Poor vision
Q.96) Which of the following types of shock will usually have warm peripheral extremities?
(A) Hypovolemic
(B) Neurogenic
(C) Cardiogenic
(D) Anaphylactic
Correct Answer: Neurogenic
Q.97) Potassium content of Ringer’s Lactate (m mol /L) is:
(A) 130
(B) 109
(C) 4
(5) 50
Correct Answer: 4
Q.98) Antibiotic prophylaxis is best given:
(A) 1 day before surgery
(B) 2 hours before surgery
(C) Before the time of incision
(D) Only postoperatively
Correct Answer: Before the time of incision
Q.99) Anti tubercular drug which makes the patient non-infective earliest is:
(A) INH
(B) Rifampicin
(C) Ethambutol
(D) Pyrazinamide
Correct Answer: INH
Q.100) Vertical transmission is seen with which type of Hepatitis?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) E
(D) C
Correct Answer: B
BHU Nursing Officer Question Paper 2018 & Answer Keys Download
