SREE CHITRA TIRUNAL INSTITUTE FOR MEDICAL SCIENCES & TECHNOLOGY
WRITTEN TEST FOR THE POST OF STAFF NURSE 2015
Question Paper & Answer Keys Download
Nursing Officer Question Paper 2015
Q.1) The hierarchy of human needs, where nurses prioritize basic physiological needs is identified by:
(A) Sigmund Freud
(B)Kubler-Ross
(C) Erik Erikson
(D) Abraham Maslow
Correct Answer: Abraham Maslow
Q.2) The most reliable index of the cerebral status is:
(A) Pupillary responses
(B) Response to pain
(C) Level of consciousness
(D) Deep tendon reflexes.
Correct Answer: Level of consciousness
Q.3) Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin D
(D) Vitamin K
Correct Answer: Vitamin C
Q.4) You have a stock solution of20%. To prepare one litre of 5% solution, how much diluent will be added?
(A) 100ml
(B) 150mI
(C) 200mI
(D)250mI.
Correct Answer: 250mI.
Q.5) The antidote to Heparin is:
(A) Calcium gluconate
(B) Vitamin K
(C) Protamine sulfate
(D) Atropine
Correct Answer: Protamine sulfate
Q.6) For a comatose patient, the highest priority nursing diagnosis is:
(A) Altered sensorium
(B) Ineffective airway clearance.
(C) Impaired physical mobility
(D) Altered nutrition
Correct Answer: Ineffective airway clearance.
Q.7) In a patient with decorticate posturing, the nurse observes:
(A) Flexion of elbows, the extension of knees, and plantar flexion of feet
(B) Flexion of upper and lower extremities
(C) Extension of upper and lower extremities
(D) Extension of elbows and knees and flexion of wrist.
Correct Answer: Flexion of elbows, the extension of knees, and plantar flexion of feet
Q.8) The normal central venous pressure (CVP) reading is between:
(A) 0-5 cms
(B) 5-10 cms
(C) 10-15 cms
(D) 15-20 cms
Correct Answer:5-10 cms
Q.9) A patient with congestive cardiac failure experiences dyspnoea due to:
(A) Accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces and alveoli of lungs
(B) Bronchial secretions and spasm
(C) Pulmonary embolism
(D) Pulmonary congestion resulting from cardiomegaly
Correct Answer: Accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces and alveoli of the lungs
Q.10) A client on anticoagulant therapy is specifically monitored for:
(A) Nausea
(B) Chest pain
(C) Insomnia
(D)Haematuria
Correct Answer: Haematuria
Q.11) The nurse who observes projectile vomiting in a newborn suspect,
(A)Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
(B)Hirschprung’s disease
(C) Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
(D) Congenital heart disease
Correct Answer: Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Q.12) A person with Diabetes mellitus is asking you the calories obtained from one tea spoon of sugar. Your answer would be:
(A) 5
(B)15
(C) 20
(D)60
Correct Answer:20
Q.13) Which of the following food items are rich sources of vitamin A?
(A) Green leafy vegetables and yellow fruits
(B) Rice and potatoes
(C) Green gram and Dhal
(D) Milk and milk products
Correct Answer: Green leafy vegetables and yellow fruits
Q.14) The urinary output of a client for 24 hours was 350 ml. The nurse has documented the observation as:
(A) Anuria
(B) Polyuria
(C) Dysuria
(D) Oliguria
Correct Answer: Oliguria
Q.15) Which one of the following terms indicates an increase in the size of cells without an increase in the number of cells:
(A) Hyperplasia
(B) Hypertrophy
(C) Dysplasia
(D) Atrophy
Correct Answer: Hypertrophy
Q.16) When the client can breathe only in the upright position, it is termed as:
(A)Orthopnoea
(B)Dyspnoea
(C)Tachypnoea
(D)Apnoea
Correct Answer: Orthopnoea
Q.17) A client with hypo ventilation is prone to develop:
(A) Metabolic acidosis
(B) Respiratory acidosis
(C) Respiratory alkalosis
(D) Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis
Q.18) A client after pneumonectomy will be positioned on:
(A) Supine position only
(B) Supine and either side
(C) Operated side or back
(D)Un-operated side or back
Correct Answer: Operated side or back
Q.19) When periods of hyperpnoea alternate with periods of apnoea, the breathing pattern is termed:
(A)Kussmaul’s respiration
(B)Cheyne-Stokes respiration
(C)Bradypnoea
(D)Tachypnoea
Correct Answer: Cheyne-Stokes respiration
Q.20) A client who is sent home with an ileostomy requires dietary supplementation with:
(A) Fiber
(B) Sodium
(C) Potassium
(D) Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: Potassium
Q.21) A client after liver biopsy should be vigilantly observed for:
(A) Haemorrhage
(B) Dyspnoea
(C) Vomiting
(D) Pain
Correct Answer: Haemorrhage
Q.22) The rationale for using normal saline to start blood transfusion is:
(A) Normal saline is commonly used as a primary IV Solution
(B) It is compatible with blood
(C) Normal saline prevents haemolysis
(D) Dextrose de-activates blood
Correct Answer: Normal saline prevents haemolysis
Q.23) In case of blood transfusion reaction, the first nursing intervention would be:
(A) Notify the physician
(B) Stop transfusion
(C) Slow down the transfusion
(D) Administer antihistamines
Correct Answer: Stop transfusion
Q.24) The priority nursing assessment in an immediate post-anasethesia client is to:
(A) Monitor vital signs
(B) Check gag reflex
(C) Assess pain
(D) Assess airway patency
Correct Answer: Assess airway patency
Q.25) Alkylating chemotherapeutic agents used in cancer treatment act by:
(A) Damaging DNA in the cell nucleus
(B) Destroying messenger RNA
(C) Creating a hormonal imbalance
(D) Interrupting cellular metabolism
Correct Answer: Damaging DNA in the cell nucleus
Q.26) The most informative measurement for determining cardiogenic shock is:
(A) Cardiac output
(B) Arterial blood pressure
(C) Oxygen saturation
(D) Central Venous Pressure
Correct Answer: Cardiac output
Q.27) One of the important signs that nurse would observe in hypovolemic shock is:
(A) Hypertension
(B)Tachypnoea
(C) Oliguria
(D) Cyanosis
Correct Answer: Oliguria
Q.28) The normal PH of blood is:
(A)<7
(B) 7-7.35
(C) 7.35-7.45
(D)<7.45
Correct Answer: 7.35-7.45
Q.29) Normal serum potassium is:
(A) 2.3-3.5 mEq/L
(B) 3.5-5.3 mEq/L
(C) 5.32-7.5 mEq/L
(D) 7.5-8.9 mEq/L
Correct Answer: 3.5-5.3 mEq/L
Q.30) Normal serum creatinine is:
(A) 0.5 -1.5 mg/dL
(B) 1.5-3 mg/dL
(C) 3-5 mg/dL
(D) 5-8 mg/dL
Correct Answer: 0.5 -1.5 mg/dL
Q.31) Normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in male is:
(A) 95 mL/mt
(B) 110mL/mt
(C) 125 mL/mt
(D) 150 mL/mt
Correct Answer: 125 mL/mt
Q.32) Normal serum albumin is:
(A) 1.5 – 3 mg/100mL
(B) 3.5-5mg/100mL
(C) 5-7.5 mg/100mL
(D) 7-10 mg/100mL
Correct Answer: 3.5-5mg/100mL
Q.33) A vaginal examination is indicated when membranes rupture spontaneously in a pregnant woman with polyhydramnios to:
(A) Assess fetal maturity
(B) Determine stage of labour
(C) Note the position of the foetus
(D) Rule out cord prolapse
Correct Answer: Rule out cord prolapse
Q.34) Which one of the following is a major cause of atonic postpartum haemorrhage?
(A) Infection
(B) Retained products
(C) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
(D) Jaundice
Correct Answer: Retained products
Q.35) Normal respiratory rate in a newborn is
(A)<20/mt
(B) 20-40/mt
(C)40-60/mt
(D)>60/mt
Correct Answer: 40-60/mt
Q.36) The most accurate area to check the pulse rate in an infant is
(A) Carotid artery
(B) Brachial artery
(C) Temporal Artery
(D) Apex of the heart
Correct Answer: Apex of the heart
Q.37) A staff nurse, who was called by the Nursing Superintendent for a feedback on poor performance, spent the remaining time of the shift, blaming her supervisor and colleagues. The mental mechanism used by her is:
(A) Projection
(B) Reaction formation
(C) Rationalization
(D) Compensation
Correct Answer: Projection
Q.38) Which one of the following drugs is a mood stabilizer?
(A) Librium
(B) Lithium Carbonate
(C)Tofranil
(D) Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Lithium Carbonate
Q.39) In the ECG recording of a client, the nurse observes tall peaked T waves, flat P waves, widened QRS complex, and prolonged PR interval. The nurse identifies:
(A)Hypokalaemia
(B)Hyperkalaemia
(C) Hypocalcaemia
(D)Hypercalcaemia
Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Q.40) The physician has prescribed 20 mEq of KCl to a client. The available KCI is 10 mEq/5 mL The nurse will administer:
(A) 5 ml
(B) 7.5 ml
(C) 10 ml
(D) 10.5 ml
Correct Answer: 10ml
Q.41) Which one of the following indicates in teasing intracranial pressure following head injury?
(A) Restlessness
(B) Decreased pulse rate
(C) Increasing blood pressure
(D) Widening pulse pressure
Correct Answer: Restlessness
Q.42) Which one of the following conditions is a common cause of cardiogenic shock?
(A)Electrolve imbalance
(B) Fluid overload
(C) Left ventricular failure
(D)Hypovolaemia
Correct Answer: Left ventricular failure
Q.43) Which one of the following is the drug of choice in ventricular arrhythmias?
(A) Inderal
(B) Digoxin
(C)Sorbitrate
(D) Lidocaine
Correct Answer: Lidocaine
Q.44) Cyanotic spell is a feature of:
(A)TOF
(B)VSD
(C) PDA
(D) ASD
Correct Answer: TOF
Q.45) An infant experiencing hypercyanotic spells is placed in:
(A) High fowler’s position
(B) Knee-chest position
(C) Prone position
(D) Supine position
Correct Answer: Knee-chest position
Q.46) When a haemophilic carrier female marries a normal male, the chance of their daughter becoming a carrier is:
(A) 100%
(B)75%
(C) 50%
(D)25%
Correct Answer: 50%
Q.47) A nurse observes koplik’s spots on oral examination of a child with fever. This is indicative of:
(A) Measles
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Dengue fever
(D) Whooping cough
Correct Answer: Measles
Q.48) Census is taken once in every:
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C)15 years
(D)20 years
Correct Answer: 10 years
Q.49) The nurse is teaching a client about iron-rich food to be consumed, to correct anaemia. Which one of the following vitamins has to be supplemented to increase iron absorption?
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin B6
(D) Folic acid
Correct Answer: Vitamin C
Q.50) In which one of the following leadership styles, the leader values the individual characteristics and abilities of each subordinate?
(A) Autocratic
(B) Democratic
(C) Laissez faire
(D) Bureaucratic
Correct Answer: Democratic
Q.51) Which one of the following is known as the pacemaker of the heart?
(A) SA node
(B) AV node
(C) Bundle of His
(D) Purkinje fibres
Correct Answer: SA node
Q.52) The left atrium and the lateral and posterior surfaces of the left ventricle is supplied by the:
(A) Left anterior descending coronary artery
(B) The left coronary artery
(C) The right coronary artery
(D) The circumflex artery.
Correct Answer: The circumflex artery.
Q.53) Which one of the following is a potassium sparing diuretic?
(A) Spironolactone
(B) Mannitol
(C)Furosemide
(D)Chlorothiazide
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Q.54) Tab Digoxin is withheld if the pulse rate is less than:
(A) 40/mt.
(B) 50/mt.
(C) 60/mt.
(D)70/mt.
Correct Answer:60/mt.
Q.55) A nurse who observes the absence of p waves and fibrillating waves before each QRS complex, on the cardiac monitor will interpret the client’s cardiac rhythm as:
(A) Sinus tachycardia
(B) Ventricular fibrillation
(C) Ventricular tachycardia
(D) Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Q.56) The most important risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)is:
(A) Myocardial infarction
(B) Pulmonary embolism
(C) Phlebitis
(D) Bleeding
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Q.57) Which one of the following interventions should be avoided by the nurse, while caring aclient with deep vein thrombosis?
(A) Providing bedrest
(B) Elevation of the affected extremity
(C) Massaging the extremity
(D) Administering analgesics.
Correct Answer: Massaging the extremity
Q.58) The normal volume of cerebro spinal fluid (CSF) is:
(A) 25-50ml
(B) 50-100ml
(C) 125-150ml
(D)150-200mI
Correct Answer: 125-150ml
Q.59) Which of the following neurotransmitter is deficient in Myasthenia gravis?
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Dopamine
(C) Serotonin
(D) Nor-epinephrine
Correct Answer: Acetylcholine
Q.60) In paraplegia, paralysis involves:
(A) All four extremities
(B) Only lower extremities
(C) One side of the body
(D) Only upper extremities
Correct Answer: Only lower extremities
Q.61) In the assessment of a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome, the nurse gives high priority to:
(A) Pain
(B) Level of consciousness
(C) Motor functions
(D) Respiratory status
Correct Answer: Respiratory status
Q.62) Which one of the following is an anticonvulsant drug?
(A)Bromocriptine
(B)Largactil
(C) Phenytoin
(D)Chlordiazepoxide
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Q.63) Perception in the absence of external stimuli is termed as:
(A)delusion
(B) Illusion
(C)Phobia
(D) Hallucination
Correct Answer: Hallucination
Q.64) One tablespoon is equal to ——- ml.
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D)30
Correct Answer: 15
Q.65) The physician prescribed 1500ml Ringer Lactate to be infused in 12 hours (1ml=15drops). The drop rate would be:
(A) 20drops/mt
(B) 25drops/mt
(C) 31 drops/mt
(D)35drops/mt
Correct Answer: 31 drops/mt
Q.66) The physician prescribedPhenytoin 0.2g orally, twice daily. The medicine is available as 100mg capsule. How many capsules will be administered for a dose?
(A) 1 capsule
(B)2 capsules
(C)3 capsules
(D)4 capsules
Correct Answer: 2 capsules
Q.67) During CPR of an adult client, while performing the chest compressions, the sternum will be depressed to:
(A) ½ to ¾ inch
(B) ¾ to 1 inch
(C)1½ to 2 inches
(D) 2 to 2 ½ inches.
Correct Answer: 1½ to 2 inches
Q.68) In which one of the following situations, the rescuer uses jaw thrust method to open airway?
(A) In all situations requiring CPR
(B) If the client has a history of epilepsy
(C) If the client has a history of head injury
(D) If an injury of the neck is suspected.
Correct Answer: If an injury of the neck is suspected.
Q.69) Which of the following assessment data is relevant for a client diagnosed with Glaucoma?
(A) History of Diabetes Mellitus
(B) History of Migraine
(C) History of Chronic Sinusitis
(D) History of Bronchial Asthma
Correct Answer: History of Diabetes Mellitus
Q.70) A nurse monitoring the intercostal drainage system of a patient with pneumothorax, notes intermittent bubbling ill the water seal chamber. The most appropriate action would be.
(A) Inform the Physician
(B) Check for air leak
(C) Document the observation
(D) Clamp the chest drainage tube
Correct Answer: Document the observation
Q.71) The arterial blood gas (ABG) report of a client shows a pH of 7.32, PC02- 52mm Hg, P02-85 mm of Hg, and HCO3 of 27mEq/L. The nurse interprets that the client has:
(A) Respiratory acidosis
(B) Metabolic acidosis
(C) Respiratory alkalosis
(D) Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis
Q.72) While monitoring a child after tonsillectomy, the nurse observes him swallowing frequently.
This indicates that the child is:
(A) Feeling thirsty
(B) Recovering from anaesthesia
(C) Bleeding
(D) Having pain
Correct Answer: Bleeding
Q.73) The nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a patient scheduled for surgery. Which one of the following results is unfavorable?
(A) FBS 84 mg%,
(B)Hb 8 gm%
(C) Serum-creatinine 0.7 mg/dl
(D) Blood urea 28 mg/dl.
Correct Answer: Hb 8 gm%
Q.74) Which one of the following statements is incorrect about the Glasgow Coma scale?
(A) The scale measures the neurological status
(B) The sensory responses are easily assessed
(C) The maximum score is 15
(D) A score less than 8 indicates coma.
Correct Answer: The sensory responses are easily assessed
Q.75) The site selected by a nurse to administer an intramuscular injection to a 6-month infant is:
(A)Vastuslateralis
(B)Ventro-gluteal
(C)Dorso-gluteal
(D) Deltoid
Correct Answer: Vastuslateralis
Q.76) Which of the following age groups children, engage in parallel play?
(A) Infant
(B) Toddler
(C) Pre-schooler
(D)Schooler
Correct Answer: Toddler
Q.77) In which one of the following conditions, Kernig’ssign is considered as a positive indicator?
(A) Meningitis
(B) Hepatitis
(C) Deep vein thrombosis
(D) Typhoid
Correct Answer: Meningitis
Q.78) Which one of the following is the most potent stimulus for erythropoietin production?
(A) Anemia
(B) Proteinuria
(C) Hypoglycemia
(D) Hypoxia
Correct Answer: Anemia
Q.79) One of the major complications that occur during hemodialysis is:
(A) Muscle cramps
(B) Hypotension
(C) Air embolism
(D) Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: Hypotension
Q.80) The left down reflex during breastfeeding is influenced by the hormone:
(A) Progesterone
(B)Oestrogen
(C) Prolactin
(D) Oxytocin
Correct Answer: Oxytocin
Nursing Officer Question Paper 2015 & Answer Keys Download
