SCTIMST Nursing Officer Question Paper Answer Key 2019

Exam Paper 2019,


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Exam Date: 01/09/2019,                       Total Marks : 100

SCTIMST: Nursing Officer Answer Key 2019

Final Exam Question Paper 2019

English Language Only

The total number of Questions will be 80 one mark for each

(Total Questions: 80)


श्री चित्रातिरुनालआयुर्विज्ञान और प्रौद्योगिकीसंस्थान, तिरुवनन्तपुरम, केरल – 695011 (एकराष्ट्रीय महत्वकासंस्थान, विज्ञानएवंप्रौद्योगिकीविभाग, भारतसरकार)



Q.1. A patient has undergone surgery for pituitary adenoma through. transphenoidal approach. The nurse understands that it is highly significant to specifically monitor

  1. Hemodynamic status
  2. Vital signs
  3. Visual acuity and visual fields
  4. Hearing acuity


Correct Answer: c. Visual acuity and visual fields


Q.2. Brain abscess is more frequently diagnosed in people who are

  1. On anti-epileptic medications
  2. Having head injuries
  3. In the 3rd and 4th decade of life
  4. Immunosuppressed


Correct Answer: d. Having head injuries


Q.3. Glycated hemoglobin (HbAIC) is a blood test that reflects average blood glucose levels over a period of approximately

  1. 0-1 month
  2. 1-2 months
  3. 2-3 months
  4. 3-4 months


Correct Answer: c. 2-3 months


Q.4. The site that has the highest rate of absorption for insulin is

  1. Abdomen
  2. Thgh
  3. Upper arm
  4. Scapula


Correct Answer: a. Abdomen


Q.5. An accurate daily weight must be recorded for patients with kidney disease because of 1 kg weight gain is equal to retained fluid of

  1. 500 ml
  2. 1000 ml
  3. 1500 rnl
  4. 2000 ml


Correct Answer: b. 1000 ml


Q.6. While administering Kayexalate retention enema to promote potassium removal, it should be retained for

  1. 10-15 minutes
  2. 15-30 minutes
  3. 30-45 minutes
  4. 45-60 minutes


Correct Answer: c. 30-45 minutes


Q.7. After Kayexalate retention enema, a cleansing enema is usually given to

  1. Remove the remaining kayexalate if any
  2. Prevent fecal impaction
  3. Prevent diarrhea
  4. Prevent electrolyte imbalances


Correct Answer: b. Prevent fecal impaction


Q.8. The reason for more than 90% of recurrent Urinary Tract Infection in women is

  1. Reinfection with new bacteria
  2. Structural abnormal ities in the urinary tract
  3. Persistence of the same organism
  4. Renal stones


Correct Answer: a. Reinfection with new bacteria


Q.9. The criterion that indicates malfunctioning of a pacemaker is

  1. Short T waves
  2. Normal sinus rhythm
  3. No spikes appearing on the ECG
  4. Pairing spikes followed by a wide QRS complex


Correct Answer: c. No spikes appearing on the ECG


Q.10. A patient receiving intravenous aminophylline should be monitored for

  1. Hypotension
  2. Visual disturbances
  3. Decreased pulse rate
  4. Decreased urinary output


Correct Answer: a. Hypotension


Q.11. The amount of sodium in Igm of salt is

  1. 293 rng
  2. 393 mg
  3. 493 mg
  4. 593 rng


Correct Answer: b. 393 mg

 Q.12. The nurse providing care to a patient with water seal drainage observes fluctuations in the water seal chamber, This indicates

  1. An air leak in the drainage system
  2. Obstruction of the tubing
  3. Suction applied is more than required
  4. The system is functioning properly


Correct Answer: d. The system is functioning properly


Q.13. Lactulose is given to patients with hepatic encephalopathy because it

  1. Controls bleeding from oesophageal varices
  2. Reduces ascitis
  3. Prevents uremia
  4. Reduces blood ammonia concentration


Correct Answer: d. Reduces blood ammonia concentration


Q.14. The main purpose of MELD score is to determine

  1. The prognosis
  2. Type of treatment
  3. Organ allocation priorities
  4. The type of cirrhosis of liver


Correct Answer: c. Organ allocation priorities


Q.15. Pancuronium is administered to a patient on PEEP diagnosed as ARDS

  1. To reduce patient fighting with ventilator
  2. To reduce the anxiety
  3. To reduce the discomfort of the ventilation
  4. To reduce hypotension


Correct Answer: a. To reduce patient fighting with ventilator


Q.16. To prevent the pulmonary embolism, heparin must be continued until the international nor.malized ration (INR) is within the therapeutic range of

  1. 1 to 1.5
  2. 1.5 to 2
  3. 2 to 2.5
  4. 2.5 to 3


Correct Answer: c. 2 to 2.5


Q.17. Patients who receive continuous/timed interval feeding should be positioned semi recumbent during the feeding and for a minimum of

  1. 15 minutes afterward
  2. 20 minutes afterward
  3. 30 minutes afterward
  4. 45 minutes afterward


Correct Answer: c. 30 minutes afterward


Q.18. The minimum length of an effective pulmonary rehabilitation programme is

  1. 4 weeks
  2. 6 weeks
  3. 8 weeks
  4. 10 weeks


Correct Answer: b. 6 weeks


Q.19. The tracheostomy tape should be adequately tightened to prevent dislodgement. Tighten the tape until only

  1. One finger can be comfortably inserted under it
  2. Two fingers can be comfortably inserted under it
  3. Three fingers can be comfortably inserted under it
  4. Four fingers can be comfortably inserted under it


Correct Answer: b. Two fingers can be comfortably inserted under it


Q.20. One of the criteria to wean a patient from ventilator is vital capacity which should be

  1. 5 to 10 ml/kg
  2. 10 to 15 ml/kg
  3. 15 to 20 ml/kg
  4. 20 to 25 ml/kg


Correct Answer: b. 10 to 15 ml/kg


Q.21. Usually no drains are used after pneumonectomy because

  1. Blood loss is usually minimal
  2. Drains may cause pneumothorax.
  3. It is difficult to remove the drains
  4. Mediastinal shift is prevented


Correct Answer: d. Mediastinal shift is prevented


Q.22. The highest priority when promoting oral hygiene to an unconscious patient is to

  1. Prevent aspiration
  2. Prevent dental caries
  3. Prevent unpleasant mouth odour
  4. Prevent mouth ulcers


Correct Answer: a. Prevent aspiration


Q.23. In buccal administration of drugs, medication is kept in the mouth against the mucous membrane of

  1. The Cheek
  2. The tongue
  3. The teeth
  4. The palate


Correct Answer: a. The Cheek


Q.24. A stroke patient uses his stronger extremities to give range of motion exercises to the weaker extremities. This is an example of

  1. Passive ROM
  2. Active assistive ROM
  3. Active ROM
  4. Resistive ROM


Correct Answer: a. Passive ROM


Q.25. Passive range of motion exercises prevent

  1. Contractures
  2. Osteoporosis
  3. Muscle atrophy
  4. Renal calculi


Correct Answer: a. Contractures


Q.26. When assisting a patient to stand following a prolonged period of bed rest, the nurse must carefully assess for

  1. Steadiness of gait
  2. Respiratory rate
  3. Orthostatic hypotension
  4. Dependent edema


Correct Answer: c. Orthostatic hypotension


Q.27. Tab, propranolol 100 mg, QID, oral has been prescribed by the physician for a patient. The nurse finds that only 40 mg tablets are available, how many tablets will she administer?

  1. 1.5
  2. 2
  3. 2.5
  4. 3

Correct Answer: c. 2.5


Q.28. Measuring the pH of the aspirate is a recommended method to confirm placement of nasogastric feeding tube. Which of the following pH value shows that the tube is in the stomach?

  1. 8
  2. 7
  3. 6
  4. 5


Correct Answer: d. 5


Q.29. The size of the catheter used for urinary catheterization for adults is

  1. 12 to 14 F
  2. 8 to 12 F
  3. 5 to 8 F
  4. 3 to 5 F


Correct Answer: a. 12 to 14 F


Q.30. What is the expected condition for a patient with the given ABG values. (pH-7.S, PC02A6 mmHg HC03 -30mEq/dl, K+-3.4mEq/dl).

  1. Respiratory acidosis
  2. Metabolic alkalosis
  3. Metabolic acidosis
  4. Respiratory alkalosis


Correct Answer: b. Metabolic alkalosis


Q.31. What is the total calorie getting from infusion of 1000 ml of S% Dextrose?

  1. 200 kcal
  2. 400 kcal
  3. 800 kcal
  4. 1000 kcal


Correct Answer: a. 200 kcal


Q.32. What is the normal haemoglobin range ofa newborn?

  1. 14-18 g/dl
  2. 10-14 g/dl
  3. 18-20g/dl
  4. 15-25 g/dl


Correct Answer: c. 18-20g/dl


Q.33. Which of the following is an isotonic solution?

  1. 0.09% NACI
  2. RL
  3. 0.45%-·NACI 3
  4. 5% D in 0.9% NACI


Correct Answer: b. RL


Q.34. To perform catheterization, the nurse should place a woman in

  1. Lithotomy position
  2. Dorsal recumbent position
  3. Sim’s position
  4. Trendelenburg position


Correct Answer: b. Dorsal recumbent position


Q.35. Apical pulse can be assessed at

  1. At 2nd intercostal space in the left midclavicular line
  2. Between 2nd and 3rd intercostal space in the left midclavicular line
  3. Between 4th and 5th intercostal space in the left midclavicular line
  4. Between 5th and 6th intercostal space in the left midclavicular line


Correct Answer: d. Between 5th and 6th intercostal space in the left midclavicular line


Q.36. What is the most common complication of myocardial infarction?

  1. Hypokalemia
  2. Dysrhythmias
  3. Renal failure
  4. Dressler’s syndrome


Correct Answer: b. Dysrhythmias


Q.37. What should be monitored for a client receiving warfarin sodium?

  1. INR
  2. APTT
  3. Bleeding time
  4. Sedimentation rate


Correct Answer: a. INR


Q.38. What is the side effect of aminophylline administration?

  1. Hypertension
  2. Hypotension
  3. Bradycardia
  4. Flushing of skin


Correct Answer: b. Hypotension


Q.39. What is the comfortable position given for client with emphysema?

  1. Fowler’s
  2. Dorsal Recumbent
  3. Supine
  4. Orthopneic


Correct Answer: d. Orthopneic


Q.40. What is the normal BUN Creatinine ratio?

  1. 10:2
  2. 20:2
  3. 20: 1
  4. 30: 1


Correct Answer: a. 10:2


Q.41. Prednisolone is usually not used along with

  1. Omeprazole
  2. Ranitidine
  3. 10:2
  4. Dionil


Correct Answer: a. 10:2


Q.42. What is the classical sign of pheochromocytoma?

  1. Malignant hyperthermia
  2. Malignant hypertension
  3. Hypotension
  4. Hyperkalemia


Correct Answer: b. Malignant hypertension


Q.43. At what time of the prenatal development should the nurse expect the greatest fetal weight gain?

  1. First trimester
  2. Third trimester
  3. Second trimester
  4. Implantation period


Correct Answer: b. Third trimester


Q.44. In which fetal blood vessel is tbe oxygen content highest?

  1. Ductus venosus
  2. Umbilical artery
  3. Pulmonary artery
  4. Ductus arteriosus


Correct Answer: a. Ductus venosus


Q.45. When a client’s legs are placed in stirrups for birth, both legs should be positioned simultaneously to prevent

  1. Venous stasis in the legs
  2. Pressure on the perineum
  3. Excessive pull on the fascia
  4. Trauma to uterine ligaments


Correct Answer: d. Trauma to uterine ligaments


Q.46. When checking a client’s fundus on the 2nd postpartum day, the nurse observes that the fundus is above the umbilicus and displaced to the right. The nurse evaluates that the client probably has

  1. A slow rate of involution
  2. Retained placental fragments
  3. An over distended bladder
  4. Over stretched uterine ligaments


Correct Answer: c. An over distended bladder


Q.47. Side effects of long term cortisone therapy is

  1. Hypoglycemia
  2. Severe anorexia
  3. Anaphylactic shock
  4. Behavioural changes


Correct Answer: d. Behavioural changes


Q.48. The nurse is caring a client who is receiving a unit of packed RBCs. Which of the following findings leads the nurse to suspect a transfusion reaction caused by incompatible blood?

  1. Dyspnoea
  2. Cyanosis
  3. Backache
  4. Bradycardia


Correct Answer: c. Backache


Q.49. What is the most serious complication of meningitis in young children?

  1. Epilepsy
  2. Blindness
  3. Peripheral circulatory collapse
  4. Communicating hydrocephalus


Correct Answer: c. Peripheral circulatory collapse


Q.50. The maximum score in APGAR scoring is

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 15
  4. 12


Correct Answer: b. 10


Q.51. A young child has coarctation of aorta. What should the nurse expect to identify when taking the child’s vital signs?

  1. A weak radial pulse
  2. An irregular heart beat
  3. A bounding femoral pulse
  4. An elevated BP in the arm


Correct Answer: d. An elevated BP in the arm


Q.52. An increase in CVP is seen in

  1. Dehydration
  2. Renal failure
  3. Liver failure
  4. Shock


Correct Answer: b. Renal failure


Q.53. Strawberry tongue is a sign of

  1. Microcytic anemia
  2. Scarlet fever
  3. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
  4. Mumps


Correct Answer: b. Scarlet fever


Q.54. Common symptom of salicylate toxicity is

  1. Decreased Urine output
  2. Jaundice
  3. Anorexia
  4. Tinnitus


Correct Answer: d. Tinnitus


Q.55. Three weeks after transplant, a client develops leucopenia. The nurse understands that the leucopenia probably is caused by

  1. Bacterial Infection
  2. High Creatinine levels
  3. Rejection of the Kidney
  4. Antirejection medication


Correct Answer: d. Antirejection medication


Q.56. Which of the following symptoms is most commonly associated with Left side heart failure?

  1. Crackles
  2. Arrhythmias
  3. Hepatic engorgement
  4. Hypotension


Correct Answer: a. Crackles


Q.57. When performing external chest compressions on an adult during CPR the rescuer should depress the sternum

  1. 0.5 to 1 inch
  2. 1 to 1.5 inch
  3. 1.5 to 2 inches
  4. 2 to 2.5 inches


Correct Answer: c. 1.5 to 2 inches


Q.58. Which post procedure intervention should the nurse implement in a client after ERCP?

  1. Assess for rectal bleeding
  2. Increase fluid intake
  3. Assess gag reflex
  4. Keep in supine position


Correct Answer: c. Assess gag reflex


Q.59. Which of the following problem has priority in a client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis?

  1. Risk for fluid volume deficit
  2. Alteration in comfort
  3. Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirements
  4. Knowledge deficit


Correct Answer: b. Alteration in comfort


Q.60. Which endocrine disorder would the nurse assess for in a head injury patient with increased intracranial pressu re?

  1. Pheochromocytoma
  2. Diabetes insipidus
  3. Hashimoto’s disease
  4. Gynaecornastia


Correct Answer: b. Diabetes insipidus


Q.61. A client receiving dialysis for end-stage renal disease wants to quit dialysis and die. Which ethical principle supports the clients right to die?

  1. Autonomy
  2. Self determination
  3. Beneficence
  4. Justice


Correct Answer: a. Autonomy


Q.62. A physician prescribes laboratory studies for an infant of a human immunodeficiency virus (HIY) positive woman to determine the presence of HIV antigen. Which laboratory test will be prescribed?

  1. Western blot
  2. Chest X-ray
  3. CD4 + count
  4. P24 antigen assay


Correct Answer: d. P24 antigen assay


Q.63. A nurse is caring for a child with a suspected diagnosis of rheumatic fever. Which laboratory test would assist in confirming the diagnosis?

  1. White blood cell count
  2. Red blood cell count
  3. Immunoglobulin
  4. Antistreptolysin 0titre


Correct Answer: d. Antistreptolysin 0titre


Q.64. A client tells the nurse that his body is made of wood and is quite heavy. The nurse interprets this as

  1. Compulsion
  2. Hallucination
  3. Depersonalization
  4. Obsession


Correct Answer: c. Depersonalization


Q.65. Which of the following might increase the client’s risk during ECT?

  1. Degenerative joint disease
  2. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
  3. Recent myocardial infarction
  4. Use of multiple medications


Correct Answer: b. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus


Q.66. A client with pregnancy- induced hypertension is hospitalized and is receiving magnesium sulfate (MgS04) by IN push. Before administering each dose, the nurse would assess the client’s

  1. Temperature and pulse rate
  2. Respirations and patellar reflex
  3. Blood pressure and apical pulse
  4. Urinary output relative to fluid intake


Correct Answer: b. Respirations and patellar reflex


Q.67. The word “POSDCORB” describes the elements of administration in which “S” stands for

  1. Supervision
  2. Selection
  3. Securing
  4. Staffing


Correct Answer: d. Staffing


Q.68. The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorders is

  1. T3
  2. T4
  3. TSH
  4. Thyroglobulin


Correct Answer: c. TSH


Q.69. First treatment of rupture of varicose veins at the ankle should be

  1. Rest in prone position of patient
  2. Application of a tourniquet distally
  3. Application of a tourniquet proximally
  4. Direct pressure and elevation


Correct Answer: d. Direct pressure and elevation


Q.70. The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian population is

  1. Tongue
  2. Floor of mouth
  3. Alveobuccal complex
  4. Lip


Correct Answer: c. Alveobuccal complex


Q.71. Which among the following is a potassium sparing diuretic?

  1. Lasix
  2. Mannitol
  3. Diamox
  4. Spironolactone


Correct Answer: d. Spironolactone


Q.72. The difference between apical and radial pulse is called

  1. Pulse pressure
  2. Pulse deficit
  3. Water hammer pulse
  4. Carotid pulse


Correct Answer: b. Pulse deficit


Q.73. The high-pitched musical sound on expiration during a respiratory assessment is termed as

  1. Stridor
  2. Wheezing
  3. Grunting
  4. Crepitation


Correct Answer: b. Wheezing


Q.74. A client with severe burns is receiving H2 receptor antagonist therapy. The nurse understands that the purpose of the therapy is to

  1. Prevent stress ulcer
  2. Block prostaglandin synthesis
  3. Facilitate protein synthesis
  4. Enhance gas exchange


Correct Answer: a. Prevent stress ulcer


Q.75. The angle of insertion of the needle while giving an intradermal injection is

  1. 15 degree
  2. 25 degree
  3. 45 degree
  4. 90 degree


Correct Answer: a. 15 degree


Q.76. The most common symptom of bladder cancer is

  1. Suprapubic pain
  2. Painless haematuria
  3. Dysuria
  4. Urinary retension


Correct Answer: b. Painless haematuria


Q.77. The abdominal distention and absence of bowel sounds after abdominal surgery indicate

  1. Hemorrhage
  2. Paralytic ileus
  3. Intussusception
  4. Flatulence


Correct Answer: b. Paralytic ileus


Q.78. HbAIC is a blood test that reflects average blood sugar level over a period of approximately

  1. 0-1 month
  2. 1-2 months
  3. 2-3 months
  4. 3-4 months


Correct Answer: c. 2-3 months


Q.79. In preparing a client for barium enema for the evaluation of colon cancer, the nurse should

  1. Give a oil retention enema and a laxative on the day before
  2. Place the client on complete bed rest the day before the procedure
  3. Give the patient two tablets of antacid on the day before the procedure
  4. Give a laxative on the previous night and a cleansing enema in the morning


Correct Answer: d. Give a laxative on the previous night and a cleansing enema in the morning


Q.80. Immediately after cholecystectomy tbe highest priority nursing Intervention should be

  1. Encouraging the client to take adequate deep breaths by mouth
  2. Encouraging the client to do deep breathing and coughing exercise
  3. Changing the dressing at least BD
  4. Irrigate the T tube frequently

Correct Answer: b. Encouraging the client to do deep breathing and coughing exercise

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