Post Basic B.sc Nursing Entrance Exam Question Paper 2017 PDF Download
Entrance Exam Paper 2017,
IGNOU Question Paper Download
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Exam Year: 2017
IGNOU: PBBSC Entrance Exam Question Paper 2017
English Language Only
The total number of Questions will be 120 one mark for each
(Total Questions: 120)
(1) Message
(2) Encoding
(3) Feedback
(4) Context
Q.2. The advantages of bulletin board are all except
(1) Effective for displaying textual and pictorial materials
(2) Explain important events
(3) Highlight important information to large groups
(4) Serves as introduction to a particular topic
Q.3. Which method of teaching is alternative to the lecture method ?
(1) Group discussion
(2) Symposium
(3) Panel discussion
(4) Demonstration
Q.4. The limitations of demonstration method of teaching are all except
(1) Needs special skills for some procedures
(2) Helps theory and practice correlation
(3) Not useful if students are. inattentive
(4) Students may blindly follow the lab manual
Q.5. To clarify concepts to students the teacher must use
(1) Lesson plan
(2) Teaching aids
(3) Unit plan
(4) Curriculum
Q.6. When every study population subject has an equal chance to be selected as a sample for research study, it is known as
(1) Control
(2) Randomization
(3) Manipulation
(4) Variable
Q.7. Which of the following is not true for normal distribution ?
(1) It is a bell shaped curve
(2) Maximum frequency at the centre
(3) It is by virtue of a large sample
(4) Mean ± 1 SD limits include 9545% of observations
Q.8. If scores of a sample are distributed as 4, 6, 8, 3, 7, 8, 3, 9, 6, the mean is
(1) 6
(2) 8.
(3) 7
(4) 9
Q.9. The research tool which is to be filled by a study subject is referred as
(1) Interview schedule
(2) Questionnaire
(3) Observation check-list
(4) Rating scale
Q.10. Research in which a researcher makes changes in an independent variable and studies their effects on dependent variable under controlled conditions is called as
(1) Experimental research
(2) Non-experimental research
(3) Ethnographic research
(4) Analytical research
Q.11. In administration, principle of division of work is essential because
(1) Workers do not like interference
(2) It provides job satisfaction
(3) Administrator cannot do all the work by himself
(4) It prevents overlapping of work
Q.12. Span of control stands for
(1) Rule of control from higher to lower
(2) Number of subordinates an officer can effectively supervise
(3) Total number of supervisors in an organisation
(4) Delegation of power
Q.13. In a general ward, the ratio of nurse and patient should be
(1) 1 : 3
(2) 1 : 10
(3) 1 : 6
(4) 1 : 7
Q.14. Student-Teacher ratio in a GNM school as per INC norms is
(1) 1 : 7
(2) 1 : 15
(3) 1 : 10
(4) 1 : 20
Q.15. Job responsibilities of an ANM are all except
(1) Distribute iron and folic acid to women
(2) Home visits
(3) Conducting MTP independently
(4) Training Dai
Q.16. The advantages of nursing audits are all except
(1) Results are easily communicated for improvement
(2) Can be used in all areas of nursing service
(3) It is time consuming
(4) Nurses can be involved in conducting audits
Q.17. The importance of human relations in nursing is all except
(1) Increases productivity
(2) Improves coordination
(3) Group cohesiveness
(4) Group disintegration
Q.18. South East Asia’s WHO regional office is located at
(1) Delhi
(2) Mumbai
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Kolkata
Q.19. After completion of basic nursing education a nurse needs to register with which of the following to practise as RNRM ?
(1) Indian Nursing Council
(2) State Nursing Council
(3) TNAI
(4) Nursing Research Society
Q.20. The administration of readymade antibodies is called as
(1) Natural active immunity
(2) Natural passive immunity
(3) Artificial active immunity
(4) Artificial passive immunity
Q.21. WHO definition of health includes all dimensions except
(1) Physical well-being
(2) Social well-being
(3) Mental well-being
(4) Occupational well-being
Q.22. Non-communicable diseases causation is best explained by
(1) Supernatural theory of disease
(2) Empirical theory of disease
(3) Multifactorial theory of disease causation
(4) Theory of relationship between disease and causative agents
Q.23. VDRL test is done for diagnosis of
(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Diphtheria
(3) Syphilis
(4) Typhoid
Q.24. How much water can be disinfected with a tablet of 0.5 gm chlorine ?
(1) 5 litres
(2) 10 litres
(3) 15 litres
(4) 20 litres
Q.25. M.antoux test is used for screening of
(1) AIDS
(2) Malaria
(3) Tuberculosis
(4) Hepatitis
Q.26. Increase in the number of new cases of a particular disease in a community leads to
(1) Increased prevalence rate
(2) Increased incidence rate
(3) Mortality rate
(4) Crude mortality rate
Q.27. Rice-water type of stool is the typical symptom of
(1) Dysentery
(2) Cholera
(3) Malaria
(4) Filaria
Q.28. Which of the measures given below is the secondary prevention for tuberculosis ?
(1) BCG vaccination
(2) DOTS treatment
(3) XDR tuberculosis
(4) MDR tuberculosis
Q.29. The characteristic of an endemic disease is
(1) When a disease occurs in more than one area
(2) When a disease is constantly present in a geographical area
(3) When a disease occurs in more than the expected frequency at a time
(4) When a disease occurs in a particular season
Q.30. Mode of transmission of Hepatitis A is
(1) Faeco-oral route
(2) Blood products
(3) Sexual contact
(4) Skin contact
Q.31. The host in which a parasite attains maturity or passes sexual stage is known as
(1) Definitive host
(2) Intermediate host
(3) Incidental host
(4) Index case
Q.32. Enlargement and tenderness of the parotid gland is seen in
(1) Measles
(2) Mumps
(3) Rubella
(4) Influenza
Q.33. Schick test is used to diagnose
(1) Measles
(2) Mumps
(3) Rubella
(4) Diphtheria
Q.34. The floating tip of iceberg phenomenon indicates
(1) Diagnosed cases
(2) Clinical cases
(3) Latent cases
(4) Hidden cases
Q.35. All the drugs are given orally under DOTS programme except
(1) Isoniazid
(2) Rifampicin
(3) Ethambutol
(4) Viomycin
Q.36. Which organ is most affected in malaria ?
(1) Liver
(2) Spleen
(3) Kidney
(4) Heart
Q.37. Anterior fontanelle closes by the age of
(1) 06 to 08 months
(2) 12 to 18 months
(3) 24 to 30 months
(4) 30 to 36 months
Q.38. Failure of foramen ovale to close will cause what congenital heart disease ?
(1) Anomalies of pulmonary artery
(2) Pulmonary stenosis
(3) Atrial septal defect
(4) Transposition of arteries
Q.39. One of the following is not an alert sign in a new-born with jaundice :
(1) Clinical jaundice appears in the first 24 hours of life
(2) Conjugated serum bilirubin < 2 mg/dl
(3) Total serum bilirubin > 5 mg/di/day
(4) Jaundice persists for > 2 weeks
Q.40. When the cheek of a new-born is touched along the side of the mouth, the neonate will turn to a side. This reflex is known as
(1) Moro reflex
(2) Rooting reflex
(3) Startle reflex
(4) Glabellar reflex
Q.41. A child born to a diabetic mother can have
(1) Hypoglycemia
(2) Hyperglycemia
(3) Hyperlipidemia
(4) Hyperthermia
Q.42. Toilet training should be started for a baby at the age of
(1) Infant
(2) Toddler
(3) Pre-school
(4) School age
Q.43. Which of the following is due to deficiency of Vitamin D in young children ?
(1) Keratomalacia
(2) Xerophthalmia
(3) Osteomalacia
(4) Rickets
Q.44. The immediate treatment to treat severe dehydration is
(1) Give oral fluids
(2) Give soft diet
(3) Start IV fluids
(4) Give lemon water
Q.45. Following are the causes of behaviour problems among children except
(1) Parental factors
(2) Social relationship
(3) Family environment
(4) Physical health
Q.46. Which of the following is a complication of mumps ?
(1) Orchitis
(2) Paralysis
(3) Myocarditis
(4) Herpes
Q.47. Which examination is done to confirm TB meningitis ?
(1) Sputum examination
(2) CSF examination
(3) Spinal tap
(4) Lumbar puncture
Q.48. Which of the following is the main clinical feature of pyloric stenosis ?
(1) Irritability
(2) Weight loss
(3) Projectile vomiting
(4) Constipation
Q.49. Which of the following is a treatment of choice for phimosis ?
(1) Circumcision
(2) Excision
(3) Penectomy
(4) Removal of testes
Q.50. One of the following is a cyanotic congenital heart disease :
(1) Arterial septal defect
(2) Ventricular septal defect
(3) Pulmonary stenosis
(4) Patent ductus arteriosus
Q.51. Which hormone stimulates oocyte maturation ?
(1) GNRH
(2) LH
(3) LHRF
(4) FSH
Q.52. Ovulation occurs
(1) 14 days before next menstruation
(2) one week after menstruation
(3) one week before menstruation
(4) 28 days after menstruation
Q.53. The hormone necessary to identify positive pregnancy test is
(1) Progesterone
(2) Estrogen
(3) HCG
(4) Growth hormone
Q.54. In a pregnant woman, change in the colour of genitalia is called as
(1) Hegar’s sign
(2) Goodell’s sign
(3) Chadwick’s sign
(4) Vaginal sign
Q.55. The height of the uterus at the level of umbilicus during pregnancy is at
(1) 28 weeks
(2) 24 weeks
(3) 18 weeks
(4) 16 weeks
Q.56. The importance of prostaglandins in onset of labour is to
(1) Stimulate expulsion of fetus
(2) Stimulate uterine muscle activity
(3) Reduce uterine muscle activity
(4) Help in placental expulsion
Q.57. Immediate nursing action after rupture of membrane is to
(1) Listen to FHS
(2) Call the doctor
(3) Observe contraction
(4) Take blood pressure
Q.58. The earliest sign of placental separation is
(1) Sudden gush of blood flow per vagina
(2) Change in shape of uterus
(3) Increased height of fundus
(4) Shock
Q.59. First stage of labour is up to
(1) Rupture of membrane
(2) 315thdilation of cervix
(3) Full dilation of cervix
(4) Crowning of head
Q.60. Post-partum period begins after
(1) Expulsion of placenta
(2) Expulsion of fetus
(3) Discharge from hospital
(4) 40 days after delivery
Q.61. Post-partum vaginal discharge containing blood, mucous and placental tissue is known as
(1) Lochia
(2) Show
(3) Liquor
(4) PPM
Q.62. After delivery, the involution process takes
(1) 24 days
(2) 6 weeks
(3) 6 days
(4) 18 weeks
Q.63. Spina bifida occurs due to
(1) Accumulation of blood in the brain
(2) Neural tube defect
(3) Myometrium is affected
(4) Defect of pericranium
Q.64. If the LMP of a woman is June 20, EDD as per Naegele’s rule is
(1) February 2
(2) March 10
(3) March 27
(4) October 14
Q.65. Morning sickness during early pregnancy is due to
(1) Increased HCG hormone
(2) Increased acidity
(3) Increased progesterone level
(4) Emotional factors
Q.66. Bell’s palsy is disorder of
(1) Cranial nerve IV
(2) Cranial nerve WI
(3) Cranial nerve IX
(4) Cranial nerve X
Q.67. Abnormal accumulation of fluid in pleural space is called
(1) Pleural embolism
(2) Pleural effusion
(3) Pleural infusion
(4) Empyema
Q.68. The pigment responsible for skin tanning is
(1) Carotene
(2) Red blood cells
(3) Melanin
(4) Sebum
Q.69. Cretinism occurs as a result of
(1) Hypothyroidism
(2) Hyperthyroidism
(3) Hyperparathyroidism
(4) Hypoparathyroidism
Q.70. Increased uric acid level is found in
(1) Wilson’s disease
(2) Rheumatic fever
(3) Parkinson’s disease
(4) Gout
Q.71. The condition in which stones are located in the common bile duct is
(1) Biliary Cirrhosis
(2) Cholelithiasis
(3) Choledocholithiasis
(4) Jaundice
Q.72. The artery commonly affected during Myocardial infarction is
(1) Renal Artery
(2) Coronary Artery
(3) Hepatic Artery
(4) Carotid Artery
Q.73. In head injury Mannitol is given to
(1) Prevent seizures
(2) Treat headache
(3) Decrease intracranial pressure
(4) Decrease urine output
Q.74. Shock caused by severe allergic reaction is
(1) Neurogenic shock
(2) Anaphylactic shock
(3) Septic shock
(4) Cardiogenic shock
Q.75. Cardiac Troponin level helps in diagnosis of
(1) Myocardial infarction
(2) Congestive cardiac failure
(3) Ventricular tachycardia
(4) Atrial fibrillation
Q.76. The commonest form of dementia is
(1) Alzheimer’s disease
(2) Parkinson’s disease
(3) Vascular dementia
(4) Mixed dementia
Q.77. Pain and tenderness in the region of symphysis pubis is indicative of
(1) Pelvic fracture
(2) Spinal fracture
(3) Femur fracture
(4) Rib fracture
Q.78. The condition directly related to bone marrow suppression is
(1) Anemia
(2) Sickle cell anemia
(3) Aplastic anemia
(4) Megaloblastic anemia
Q.79. To estimate the percentage of burns caused for an individual, a nurse should
(1) Use the Rule of Nine
(2) Measure the area
(3) Measure the extent of pain
(4) Measure the extent of bleeding
Q.80. The term used for the process of RBC formation is
(1) Apoptosis
(2) Hemodialysis
(3) Erythropoiesis
(4) Hematopoiesis
Q.81. The first aid measure for a person with chemical in his eye is
(1) Wash eye thoroughly with water
(2) Put eye drops
(3) Rub the eye
(4) Bandage the eye
Q.82. The part of the eye that is similar to a film inside the camera is
(1) Cornea
(2) Lens
(3) Retina
(4) Conjunctiva
Q.83. During ECT, current is passed for
(1) 5 to 10 seconds
(2) 10 to 30 seconds
(3) 0.3 to 0.7 seconds
(4) 1 to 3 seconds
Q.84. Behaviour analysis is based upon the principle of
(1) Classical conditioning
(2) Operant conditioning
(3) Dream analysis
(4) Cognitive behaviour
Q.85. Hysteria is a
(1) Mood disorder
(2) Neurotic disorder
(3) Psychotic disorder
(4) Personality disorder
Q.86. The flight of ideas is seen in
(1) Mania
(2) Depression
(3) Mental retardation
(4) Compulsive disorder
Q.87. Hallucination is a disorder of
(1) Perception
(2) Thought
(3) Consciousness
(4) Behaviour
Q.88. The most common drug used in the treatment of mania is
(1) BDZ
(2) Lithium
(3) Imipramine
(4) Serenace
Q.89. Extreme agitation related to dementia is referred as
(1) Acute stress reaction
(2) Conversion reaction
(3) Catastrophic reaction
(4) Manic reaction
Q.90. Delusion is not present in
(1) Mania
(2) Delirium
(3) Depression
(4) Compulsive disorder
Q.91. Alcohol dependence is indicated by
(1) Black-out
(2) Early morning drinking
(3) Withdrawal symptoms
(4) Physical discomfort
Q.92. Suicidal tendency is seen is
(1) OCD
(2) Depression
(3) Mania
(4) Anxiety disorder
Q.93. The basic difference between psychosis and neurosis is
(1) Clinical features
(2) Severity
(3) Insight
(4) Duration of illness
Q.94. ADHD is a childhood disorder also known as
(1) Hyperkinetic disorder
(2) Hypokinetic disorder
(3) Hyperactivity disorder
(4) Hypoactive disorder
Q.95. Psychoanalysis was founded by
(1) Aristotle
(2) Hippocrates
(3) S. Freud
(4) Ivan Pavlov
Q.96. Pulse rate above the normal rate is called
(1) Tachypnea
(2) Hyperpyrexia
(3) Arrhythmia
(4) Tachycardia
Q.97. Exchange of gases takes place in
(1) Kidney
(2) Lungs
(3) Liver
(4) Heart
Q.98. The chamber of the heart which receives oxygenated blood from the lungs is the
(1) Left Atrium
(2) Right Atrium
(3) Left Ventricle
(4) Right Ventricle
Q.99. A nurse administrator who involves other nurses in decision-making is an example of
(1) Laissez faire leadership
(2) Authoritarian leadership
(3) Democratic leadership
(4) Autocratic leadership
Q.100. The best position for examining the rectum is
(1) Prone
(2) Sims’
(3) Knee-chest
(4) Lithotomy
Q.101. An agent that kills micro-organisms is
(1) Antiseptic
(2) Bacteriostatic
(3) Bacteriocidal
(4) Dettol
Q.102. Difficulty in swallowing is termed as
(1) Dysphagia
(2) Xerostomia
(3) Hemoptysis
(4) Hypoxemia
Q.103. The first step in beginning any nursing procedure is to
(1) Collect equipment
(2) Wash hands
(3) Provide privacy
(4) Put on gloves
Q.104. A patient has a pressure sore on the back of her right hip and the bone is exposed. This pressure sore is in
(1) Stage I
(2) Stage II
(3) Stage III
(4) Stage IV
Q.105. A nurse should use the following technique to change a dressing after surgery :
(1) Isolation
(2) Aseptic technique
(3) Clean technique
(4) Respiratory isolation
Q.106. Which one of the following is a tool used by a nurse administrator for supervision ?
(1) Observation
(2) Anecdotal record
(3) Rating
(4) Questioning
Q.107. Which blood group is called a universal donor ?
(1) 0 +ve
(2) AB +ve
(3) A +ve
(4) B +ve
Q.108. Sublingual medication should be administered
(1) Into an endotracheal tube
(2) Under the patient’s skin
(3) Under the subcutaneous layer
(4) Under the patient’s tongue
Q.109. The position to be given to an unconscious patient for mouth care is
(1) Fowler’s
(2) Side lying
(3) Supine
(4) Trendelenburg
Q.110. Which one of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis ?
(1) Vaginal installation of medication
(2) Urinary catheterization
(3) Nasogastric tube insertion
(4) Colostomy irrigation
Q.111. Ivan Pavlov has given the theory of
(1) Classical conditioning
(2) Operant conditioning
(3) Motivation
(4) Catharsis
Q.112. Hierarchy of needs is explained by
(1) Abraham Maslow
(2) Ivan Pavlov
(3) Jean Piaget
(4) Carl Rogers
Q.113. The IQ level of a child with moderate mental retardation is
(1) 50 — 70
(2) 35 — 55
(3) 20 — 30
(4) less than 20
(1) Illusion
(2) Hallucination
(3) Delusion
(4) Intellect
Q.115. Frustration is directly associated with
(1) Problem
(2) Anxiety
(3) Goal
(4) Tension
Q.116. The primary level of child socialization is
(1) Family
(2) School
(3) Playground
(4) Community
Q.117. Social psychology deals with
(1) Human behaviour
(2) Different cultures
(3) Religious values
(4) Negative feelings
Q.118. Developmental change that occurs across all stages of life is known as
(1) Early stage approach
(2) Life cycle approach
(3) Maturity approach
(4) Life experience approach
Q.119. The highest form of thinking to find out causes that predict effect is known as
(1) Reasoning
(2) Problem solving
(3) Decision-making
(4) Resolving conflict
Q.120. A situation where a supervisor gives some of her work to her subordinate is known as
(1) Authority
(2) Delegation
(3) Responsibility
(4) Decentralization
