SREE CHITRA TIRUNAL INSTITUTE FOR MEDICAL SCIENCES & TECHNOLOGY – STAFF NURSE – A ANSWER KEY 2016

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SCTIMST Nursing Officer Question Paper Answer Key 2016

Exam Paper 2016,

SREE CHITRA TIRUNAL INSTITUTE FOR MEDICAL SCIENCES.& TECHNOLOGY QUESTION PAPER   

Q.1. A condition in which a single vessel overrides both ventricles is called

1. Transposition of great arteries
2. Hypoplastic single ventricle
3. Tetralogy of Fallot
4. Truncus arteriosus

 

Correct Answer: D. Truncus arteriosus

 

Q.2. Which form of communication is said to be the heart of nursing practice

1. Intrapersonal communication
2. Therapeutic communication
3. Interpersonal communication
4. Public communication

 

Correct Answer: C. Interpersonal communication

 

Q.3. ‘Audit cycle’ includes all except

1. Set standards
2. Observe practices
3. Audit committee
4. Compare with standard

 

Correct Answer: C. Audit committee

 

Q.4. “MRSA” nasal carriers should be treated with

1. Povidone-lodine
2. l % Mupirocin
3. 10%Mupirocin
4. Vancomycin

 

Correct Answer: B. l%Mupirocin

 

Q.5. Infra aortic balloon pump therapy is used- for treatment of:

1. Congestive hean failure
2. Pulmonary oedema
3. Cardiogenic shock
4. Aortic insufficiency

 

Correct Answer: C. Cardiogenic shock

 

Q.6. Which of the following ECG findings indicate the presence of hypokalemia?

1. Tall, peak T wave
2. Widening of QRS complex
3. Prolonged PR interval
4. ST segment depression .

 

Correct Answer: D. ST segment depression .

 

Q.7. Before radial arterial cannulation, evaluate radial / ulnar arterial patency by—.

1. Allen test
2. Angiography
3. Valsalva maneuver
4. Capillary refilling test

 

Correct Answer: A. Allen test

 

Q.8. Paradoxical elevation ofjugular venous pressure during inspiration and which occurs in patients with chronic consfrictive pericarditis and Tricuspid Stenosis

1. Kussmaul’s sign
2. Kemig’s sign
3. Homan’s sign
4. Brudzinski’s sign

 

Correct Answer: A. Kussmaul’s sign

 

Q.9. Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) refers to:

1. An optimal balance between possibilities realized and a framework of norms and values.
2. Detailed, written Instructions to achieve uniformity of the performance of a specific function
3. Doing the right thing right, right away, the first time
4. A process of meeting the needs and expectations of the customers, both internal and external.

 

Correct Answer: B. Detailed, written Instructions to achieve uniformity of the performance of a specific function

 

Q.10. Accreditation refers to one of the following:

1. Making assessment
2. Making care cost effective
3. Ensuring Quality
4. Meeting predetermined standards

 

Correct Answer: C. Ensuring Quality

 

Q.11. WHO constitution was made in

1. 1947
2. 1952
3. 1950
4. 1956

 

Correct Answer: A. 1947

 

Q.12. Nursing may be defined as “the diagnosis and treatment of human responses to health and • ‘ I ‘t* a >1 _• • I illness”. This definition of nursing was given by

1. Nightingale
2. American Nurses Association
3. Henderson
4. World Health Organization

 

Correct Answer:  B. American Nurses Association

 

Q.13. Which of the following inventory control method is based on the criteria of rate of consumption of the items?

1. ABC Analysis
2. HML Analysis
3. VED Analysis
4. FSN Analysis

 

Correct Answer: D. FSN Analysis

 

Q.14. Application of force to another person without lawful justification is

1. Battery
2. Tort
3. Negligence
4. Crime

 

Correct Answer: D. FSN Analysis

Q.15.Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when an IV infusion extravasates?

1. Elevate the site
2. Attempt to flush the tube
3. Discontinue the infusion
4. Apply warm, moist compress

 

Correct Answer: D. Apply warm, moist compress

Q.16. An ABG analysis report shows: pH – 7.20; PC02 – 35mmHg; HC03- -20mEq/L. These findings are suggestive of

1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Respiratory alkalosis
3. Metabolic alkalosis
4. Respiratoiy acidosis

 

Correct Answer: A. Metabolic acidosis

 

Q.17. Comprehensive, individualized care provided by the same nurse throughout the period of care refers to

1. Team nursing
2. Home Health Nursing
3. Primary nursing
4. Critical Care Nursing

 

Correct Answer: C. Primary nursing

 

Q.18. A nurse inadvertently infuses an IV solution containing potassium chloride too rapidly. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention advised by the physician?

1. Rapid infusion of IV Ringer’s solution
2. Rapid infusion of IV NS 0.9%
3. Insulin added to 10% dextrose in water solution
4. Administration of albumin ‘

 

Correct Answer: C. Insulin added to 10% dextrose in water solution

 

Q.19. Which one of the following principles guides nurses’ priorities at a disaster caused by a collapsed building in an earthqu^e?

1. Hemorrhage necessitates immediate care to save most lives
2. Those requiring minimal care are treated first so that they can help others
3. Those with head injuries are treated first so that their care more complex
4. Children should get highest priority because they have the greatest life expectancy

 

Correct Answer: B. Those requiring minimal care are treated first so that they can help others

 

Q.20. Which of the following ethical principles refers to the duty not to harm?

1. Beneficienee
2. Fidelity
3. Nonmaleflcence
4. Veracity

 

Correct Answer: C. Nonmaleflcence

 

Q.21. Skin breaks, abrasion, blister, or shallow crater, oedema, and infection are characteristics of

1. Stage I pressure ulcer
2. Stage IV pressure ulcer
3. Stage III pressure ulcer
4. Stage II pressure ulcer

 

Correct Answer: D. Stage II pressure ulcer

 

Q.22. ECMO is contraindicated in

1. Controlled bleeding
2. Cardiac Arrest
3. Neurological Impairment
4. Post operative CHF

 

Correct Answer: C. Neurological Impairment

 

Q.23. Principle of Surgery for CHD is

1. Establish Blue blood to MPA, Red Blood to Aorta
2. Total correction of Pathophysiology
3. Palliative operations
4. A Final Correction

 

Correct Answer: A. Establish Blue blood to MPA, Red Blood to Aorta

 

Q.24. Social responsibility in high in

1. Defensive response
2. Proactive response
3. Accommodative response
4. Obstructive response

 

Correct Answer: B. Proactive response

 

Q.25. Manchester Triage Scale colour RED indicates

1. Very urgent in zero minutes
2. Immediate in two minutes
3. Immediate in zero minutes
4. Standard in 120 minutes

 

Correct Answer: C. Immediate in zero minutes

 

Q.26. In the motivation equation most valued motivation for a nurse is

1. Professional
2. Extrinsic
3. Organisational
4. Intrinsic

 

Correct Answer: D. Intrinsic

 

Q.27. Bombay blood group is a rare group with

1. A, B and H antigen
2. No A, B and H antigen
3. Anti H and no H antigen
4. No anti H and H antigen

 

Correct Answer: C. Anti H and no H antigen

   

Q.28. Simitar syndrome is also known as

1. Acute pulmonary Syndrome
2. Pulmonaiy venous syndrome
3. Pulmonary veno lobar syndrome
4. Pulmonary lobar syndrome

 

Correct Answer: C. Pulmonary veno lobar syndrome

 

Q.29. Ross procedure is an innovative technique that utilizes

1. Pulmonary autograft for aortic valve replacement
2. Pulmonary valve homograft for aortic valve replacement
3. Aortic autograft for pulmonary replacement
4. Aortic valve homograft for aortic valve replacement

 

Correct Answer: A. Pulmonary autograft for aortic valve replacement

 

Q.30. Therapeutic relationship has a central focus on

1. Professional relationship between nurse and patient
2. Goal directed activities related to health care need
3. The relationship between health care team and patient
4. A psychological approach with therapeutic purpose

 

Correct Answer: B. Goal directed activities related to health care need

 

Q.31. The time required for steam sterilization is dependent on

1. Pressure and temperature
2. Time and temperature
3. Temperature and vacuum
4. Pressure and vacuum

 

Correct Answer: A. Pressure and temperature

 

Q.32. The Transplantation of Human Organs Act was in the year

1. 1990
2. 1995
3. 1994
4. 2010

 

Correct Answer: C. 1994

 

Q.33. Norwood procedure is performed for

1. Single ventricle Correction
2. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome palliation
3. TGA Correction
4. Interrupted aortic arch correction

 

Correct Answer: B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome palliation

 

Q.34. BECK’S TRIAD includes which of the following

1. Decreased blood pressure, distended neck vein and muffled heart sounds
2. Increased blood pressure, distended neck vein and muffled heart sounds
3. Decreased blood pressure, Neurogenic and Cardiogenic shock
4. Hypovolemic shock, Neurogenic shock, Cardiogenic shock

 

Correct Answer: A. Decreased blood pressure, distended neck vein and muffled heart sounds

 

Q.35. The client is recovering from stroke. He has residual dysphagia. While feeding the patient the nurse should avoid

1. Thin liquids
2. Feed on the unaffected side
3. liquids like oats meal
4. Allowing propped up position

 

Correct Answer: A. Thin liquids

 

Q.36. Which of the following respiratory patterns indicates increasing intra cranial pressure?

1. Rapid, Shallow respiration
2. Slow, irregular respiration
3. Orthopnoea
4. Abdominal breathing

 

Correct Answer: B. Slow, irregular respiration

 

Q.37. Cardiac muscles differ from skeletal muscle by

1. It contains action and myosin
2. It has automaticity and conductivity
3. It need calcium for contraction
4. It thrives without oxygen

 

Correct Answer: B. It has automaticity and conductivity

 

Q.38. When a client develops ventricular fibrillation in a coronary care unit, what is the

responsibility of the first person reaching the client.

1. Administer oxygen
2. Initiate injection amiodarone
3. Initiate defibrillation
4. Initiate CPR

 

Correct Answer: C. Initiate defibrillation

 

Q.39. Which of the following assessment finding is typical of extracellular fluid loss?

1. Distended J ugular veins
2. Elevated hematocrit level
3. Rapid thready pulse
4. Increased serum sodium level

 

Correct Answer: A. Distended J ugular veins

 

Q.40. What should be the first action the nurse will initiate on seeing a straight ECG base line?

1. Start CPR
2. Unplug other electrical equipments and note any change in the wave form
3. Remove loose electrode and re-apply.
4. Check patients’ response

 

Correct Answer: D. Check patients’ response

 

Q.41. What is the glucose level of normal CSF?

1. 100-110 mg/lOOmI
2. 10-20 mg/1 OOml
3. 135-145 mg/lOQml
4. 45-75 mg/100ml

 

Correct Answer: D. 45-75 mg/100ml

 

Q.42. Chemical sterilant used for plasma sterilization

1. Silver Nitrate
2. Formaldehyde
3. Hydrogen Peroxide
4. Ethylene oxide

 

Correct Answer: C. Hydrogen Peroxide

 

Q.43. The amino acid that is deficient in wheat is –

1. Leucine
2. Methionine
3. Lysine
4. Cystine

 

Correct Answer: B.Methionine

 

Q.44. Iron and folio acid tablet supplied by Government of India contains:

1. 60mg element iron and 500 pgm folic acid
2. 100 mg element iron and 500 jigm folic acid
3. 200 mg element iron and 1 mg folio acid
4. 1OO mg element iron and 5 mg folic acid

 

Correct Answer: B. 100 mg element iron and 500 jigm folic acid

 

Q.45. Extra pyramidal symptoms are a complication of the.treatment with which of the foilowing drugs

1. Antr psychotic drugs
2. Anti depressants.
3. Anti anxiety drugs
4. Anti malarial drugs

 

Correct Answer: A. Antr psychotic drugs

 

Q.46. Cranial nerves not carrying parasympathetic fibres:

1. Fourth
2. Ninth
3. Third
4. Seventh

 

Correct Answer: c. Third

 

Q.47. In a fetus insulin secretion begins by

1. 3rd month
2. 5th  month
3. 7th  month
4. 9^th  month

 

Correct Answer: C. 7th month

 

Q.48. Which of the following pulses has the highest iron content?

1. Bengal gram
2. Red gram
3. Black gram
4. Soybean

 

Correct Answer: D. Soybean

 

Q.49. After overnight fasting level of glucose transporters get reduced in

1. Brain cells
2. Adipocytes
3. RBCs
4. Hepatocytes

 

Correct Answer: B. Adipocytes

 

Q.50. Dengue shock syndrome is characterized by all of the following except

1. Hepatomegaly
2. Pleural effusion
3. Thrombocytopenia
4. Decreased haemoglobulin

 

Correct Answer: D. Decreased haemoglobulin

 

Q.51. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for Kawasaki’s disease?

1. Cyclosporine
2. Dapsone
3. IV immunoglobulin
4. Methotrexate

 

Correct Answer: C. IV immunoglobulin

 

Q.52. Plasma expanders are used in –

1. Severe anaemia
2. Severe trauma
3. Pulmonary oedema
4. Cardiac failure

 

Correct Answer: B. Severe trauma

 

Q.53- A woman is treated with lithium during pregnancy, the foetus should be tested for

1. Neural tube defect
2. Urogenital abnormalities
3. Cardiac malformations
4. Scalp defects

 

Correct Answer: C. Cardiac malformations

 

Q.54. A 4 year old child had febrile seizures, best prophylaxis is

1. Paracetamol 6 hourly
2. Urogenital abnormalities
3. Paracetamol and diazepam
4. Phenobarbitone

 

Correct Answer: D. Phenobarbitone

 

Q.55 . Guillain Barre Syndrome is a disease of which of the following

1. Brain
2. Peripheral nerve
3. Spinal cord
4. All of the above

 

Correct Answer: B. Peripheral nerve

 

Q.56. Which of the following is not a parameter for Glasgow coma scale?

1. Eye opening
2. Pupillary response
3. Verbal response
4. Motor response

 

Correct Answer: B. Pupillary response

 

Q.57. Which of the following involves the injection of radioisotopes into the body?

1. Radiography
2. PET
3. CT imaging
4. MRl

 

Correct Answer: B. PET

 

Q.58. Which of the following is not a neuro transmitter?

1. Epinephrine
2. Dopamine
3. Gamma Amino Buteric Acid (GABA).
4. Troponin

 

Correct Answer: D. Troponin

 

Q.59. Complications of Bronchiectasis are all except

1. Cerebral abscess
2. Amyloidosis
3. Lang abcess
4. Bronchogenic Carcinoma

 

Correct Answer: D. Bronchogenic Carcinoma

 

Q.60. A client’s ABG report indicates PH is 7.52; PC02 IS 32 mmHg and HC03 is 24 mEq /L. What does the nurse identify as a possible cause for this results?

1. Airway obstruction
2. Inadequate nutrition
3. Prolonged gastric suction
4. Excessive mechanical ventilation

 

Correct Answer: D. Excessive mechanical ventilation

 

Q.61. What is the maximum length of time a nurse should allow an IV bag of solution to infuse

1. 6hrs.
2. 12hrs
3. 15hrs
4. 24hrs

 

Correct Answer: D. 24hrs

 

Q.62. The choroid plexus is situated in the of brain

1. Right ventricle
2. Lateral ventricle
3. Left ventricle
4. ventricle

 

Correct Answer: C. Left ventricle

 

Q.63. Removed body parts should be disposed by

1. Autoclaving
2. Shredding
3. Incineration
4. Land filling

 

Correct Answer: C. Incineration

 

Q.64. Generalisedpruritis (itching) is a feature of following conditions except

1. Drug allergy
2. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
3. Nephritis
4. Obstructive Jaundice

 

Correct Answer: C. Nephritis

 

Q.65. GUSS is an assessment technique to check

1. Skin integrity
2. Dysphagia
3. Neurological status
4. Stroke severity

 

Correct Answer: B. Dysphagia

 

Q.66. Bell’s palsy is the paralysis of the nerve

1. Trigeminal nerve
2. Optic nerve
3. Facial nerve
4. Occulomotor nerve

 

Correct Answer: C. Facial nerve

 

Q.67. Dilatation of pupils occur in following conditions except

1. Atropine overdose
2. Morphine overdose
3. Brainstem death
4. Third cranial nerve palsy

 

Correct Answer: B. Morphine overdose

 

Q.68. Lumbar puncture is contra indicated in conditions like

1. Increased intra cranial pressure
2. Encephalitis
3. Meningitis
4. Guillain-Barre Syndrome

 

Correct Answer: A. Increased intra cranial pressure

 

Q.69. Clinical features of Parkinson’s disease include the following except

1. Muscle weakness
2. Rigidity
3. Tremors
4. Postural instability

 

Correct Answer: A. Muscle weakness

 

Q.70.”Permission is hereby given for admission, diagnostic investigations and interventional procedures as may be deemed advisable in the course of hospital admissions of myselftmy kin”. This statement is an example of—

1. Informed consent
2. Law of contract
3. Law of consent
4. Law of professional security

 

Correct Answer: B. Law of contract

 

Q.71. Which of the under mentioned chest compression relate to 2015 CPR guidelines

1. 100 – 125/minute
2. 110 – 125/minute
3. 100/minute
4. 100-120 / minute

 

Correct Answer: D. 100-120 / minute

 

Q.72. A client has an anaphylactic reaction after receiving IV penicillin, what does the nurse conclude as the cause of this reaction.

1. An acquired atopic sensitisation has occurred
2. There was passive immunity to the penicillin allergen
3. Antibodies to penicillin developed after a previous exposure
4. Potent antibodies were produced when the infusion was instituted

 

Correct Answer: C. Antibodies to penicillin developed after a previous exposure

 

Q.73. TEVAR is a procedure

1. Surgical
2. Interventional
3. Invasive
4. Non invasive

 

Correct Answer: B. Interventional

 

Q.74. A patient is prescribed prolonged bed rest after surgeiy, which complication should the nurse prevent by teaching the patient to avoid pressure on popliteal space.

1. Cerebral embolism
2. Pulmonaiy embolism
3. Dry gangrene of a limb
4. Coronary vessel occlusion

 

Correct Answer: B. Pulmonaiy embolism

 

Q.75. A nurse anticipates that new borne of diabetic mother often have tremors, periods of apnoea, cyanosis and poor sucking ability. These signs are associated with

1. Hypoglycemia
2. Central Nervous System oedema
3. Hypercalcemia
4. Congenital depression of islets of langerhans

 

Correct Answer: A. Hypoglycemia

 

Q.76. What complication should a nurse assess in a new bom after a precipitate labour?

1. Brachial palsy
2. Fractured clavicle
3. Dislocated hip
4. Intracranial haemorrhage

 

Correct Answer: D. Intracranial haemorrhage

 

Q.77. What must the nurse do to determine pulse pressure?

1. Multiply heart rate by stroke volume
2. Subtract the diastolic from the systolic BP value.
3. Determine the mean blood pressure by averaging the two
4. Calculate the difference between the apical and radial pulse rate.

 

Correct Answer: B. Subtract the diastolic from the systolic BP value.

 

Q.78. Cardiac troponin T or cardiac troponin 1 is a protein marker in the detection of:

1. Myocardial infarction
2. Congestive cardiac failure
3. Ventricular tachycardia
4. Atrial fibrillation

 

Correct Answer: A. Myocardial infarction

 

Q.79. Fibrous cords which connect the free valve margins and ventricular surfaces of the valve cusps to papillaiy muscles and ventricular walls.

1. Chordae tendineae
2. Lunulae
3. Bundle of His
4. Kent bundles

 

Correct Answer: A. Chordae tendineae

 

Q.80. The most characteristic feature of Myasthenia Gravis is

1. Impairment of touch sensation in lower limbs
2. Reversible fatiguability of limbs
3. Deterioration of vision
4. Impairment of intelligence

 

Correct Answer: B. Reversible fatiguability of limbs

 

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