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AIIMS Patna Nursing Officer Question paper Answer Key 2020

AIIMS Patna Nursing Officer Question paper Answer Key 2020

AIIMS RAIPUR - 2017

 

 

Professional Examination Board, Bhopal
Group-05 (Staff Nurse) Recruitment Test -2021 (Re-Exam for “K” Paper)

Shift – 1

 

 

AIIMS Patna Nursing Officer Question paper Answer Key 2020

 

Q.NO: 1. The apex of the heart is formed mostly by the:

  1. Left ventricle
  2. Right atrium
  3. Left atrium
  4. Central ventricle

 

Correct Answer:  Left ventricle

 

Q.NO: 2. Which of the following is the largest cranial nerve?

  1. Cranial VI
  2. Cranial nerve X
  3. Cranial nerve VII
  4. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)

 

Correct Answer: Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)

 

 

Q.NO: 3. Tarsals of the ankles are examples of which type of bone?

  1. Short bones
  2. Sesamoid bones
  3. Long bones
  4. Pneumatic bones

 

Correct Answer:  Short bones

 

Q.NO: 4. How many bones are there in the lower extremities in a normal adult?

  1. 58
  2. 62
  3. 64
  4. 60

 

Correct Answer:  62

 

Q.NO: 5. What is the approximate maximum air volume in the lung for normal healthy adult?

  1. 2400 mL
  2. 3000 mL
  3. 300 ml
  4. 6000 mL

 

Correct Answer: 6000 mL

 

Q.NO: 6. Carpometacarpal joint is an example of which of the following types of joints?

  1. Hinge
  2. Ball and socket
  3. Pivot
  4. Saddle

 

Correct Answer:  Saddle

 

 

Q.NO: 7. Which of the following layers of the adrenal gland secretes glucocorticoids?

  1. Adrenal medulla
  2. Zona glomerulosa
  3. Zona reticularis
  4. Zona fasciculate

 

Correct Answer:  Zona fasciculate

 

Q.NO: 8. Which of the following is an example of ball-and-socket joints?

  1. Skull joint
  2. Thumb joint
  3. Hip joint
  4. Elbow joint

 

Correct Answer:  Hip joint

 

Q.NO: 9. What is the synonym of Clotting Factor II?

  1. Christmas factor.
  2. Fibrinogen
  3. Calcium
  4. Prothrombin

 

Correct Answer:  Prothrombin

 

Q.NO: 10. Which of the following quadriceps femoris muscles help in flexion of the thigh?

  1. Rectus femoris
  2. Vastus medialis
  3. Vastus intermedius
  4. Vastus lateralis

 

Correct Answer:  Rectus femoris

 

Q.NO: 11. Which of the following parts of the brain controls body temperature?

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Hippocampus
  3. Pons
  4. Amygdala

 

Correct Answer:  Hypothalamus

 

Q.NO: 12. How many pairs of cervical nerves are there in the spinal cord?

  1. 5
  2. 9
  3. 8
  4. 12

 

Correct Answer:  8

 

Q.NO: 13. The elbow is an example of a _ joint.

  1. Hinge.
  2. Pivot
  3. Condyloid
  4. Planar

 

Correct Answer:  Hinge.

 

Q.NO: 14. The expanded ends of a long bone are called:

  1. Tubercle
  2. Epicondyle
  3. Diaphysis
  4. Epiphyses

 

Correct Answer:  Epiphyses

 

Q.NO: 15. The posterior pituitary consists mainly of__________.

  1. Beta cells
  2. C cells
  3. T cells
  4. Neuronal projections

 

Correct Answer:  Neuronal projections

 

Q.NO: 16. Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted from the anterior pituitary?

  1. Adrenocorticotropic
  2. Prolactin
  3. Human growth hormone
  4. Oxytocin

 

Correct Answer:  Oxytocin

 

Q.NO: 17. A_______________ is a cell that manufactures and stores the protein keratin.

  1. Keraticellyte
  2. Keracyte
  3. Keratinocyte
  4. Keratolytic

 

 

Correct Answer:  Keratinocyte

 

Q.NO: 18. Which of the following is an example of synarthrosis joint?

  1. Fibrous joints of the skull sutures
  2. Wrist joints
  3. Hip joints
  4. Elbow joint

 

Correct Answer:  Fibrous joints of the skull sutures

 

Q.NO: 19. Which of the following hormones inhibits release of growth hormone?

  1. Dopamine
  2. Somatotropin
  3. Somatostatin
  4. Thyrotropin inhibiting hormone

 

 

Correct Answer:  Somatostatin

 

Q.NO: 20. Oxytocin is mainly involved in which of the following functions?

  1. Motor skills
  2. Childbirth and lactation
  3. Growth and mental ability
  4. Regulation of blood pressure

 

Correct Answer:  Childbirth and lactation

 

Q.NO: 21. Which of the following is NOT related to MMR vaccine?  

  1. Rubella
  2. Measles
  3. Rickets
  4. Mumps

 

Correct Answer:  Rickets

 

 

Q.NO: 22. Who among the following devised the autoclave used for sterilization?

  1. Charles Chamberland
  2. Robert Koch
  3. Edward Jenner
  4. Anton van Leeuwenhoek

 

Correct Answer:  Charles Chamberland

 

 

Q.NO: 23. Widal, a serological test, is used to detect the presence of which of the following pathogenic microorganisms?

  1. E. coli
  2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  3. Haemophilus influenzae
  4. Salmonella typhi

 

Correct Answer:  Salmonella typhi

 

Q.NO: 24. The causative agent of Lyme disease is:

  1. Rickettsia prowazekii
  2. Alphavirus
  3. Borrelia burgdorferi
  4. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

 

Correct Answer:  Borrelia burgdorferi

 

Q.NO: 25. Which of the following microorganisms causes gonorrhea?

  1. Stylus gonorrhoeae
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. Stereotyoist gonorrhoeae
  4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

 

Correct Answer:  Neisseria gonorrhoeae

 

Q.NO: 26. What is the optimum temperature in an autoclave to achieve sterility?

  1. 121°C for 30 minutes
  2. 60°C for 30 minutes
  3. 34°C for 30 minutes
  4. 27°C for 20 minutes

 

Correct Answer:  121°C for 30 minutes

 

Q.NO: 27. Which of the following involves the introduction of antibodies into the body from an animal or person already immune to the disease?

  1. Active immunity
  2. Artificially acquired passive immunity
  3. Naturally acquired passive immunity
  4. Innate immunity

 

Correct Answer:  Artificially acquired passive immunity

 

Q.NO: 28. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by:

  1. IgG
  2. IgE
  3. IgM
  4. IgA

 

Correct Answer:  IgE

 

Q.NO: 29. Rod-shaped bacteria are called:

  1. Cocci
  2. Clusters
  3. Bacillus
  4. Spirochetes

 

Correct Answer:  Bacillus

 

Q.NO: 30. Which of the following is true about IgM?

  1. It is not produced by vertebrates.
  2. It forms the initial immune response.
  3. It is not an isotypes of antibody.
  4. It is the smallest antibody.

 

Correct Answer:  It forms the initial immune response.

 

 

Q.NO: 31. As per 2011 census survey,_______________ per cent of the population of India suffer from disability (in the identified 8 categories).

  1. 2.21
  2. 1.2
  3. 2.5
  4. 3.1

 

Correct Answer:  2.21

 

Q.NO: 32. Who is considered as the father of sociology?

  1. Auguste Comte
  2. Maclver
  3. Emile Durkheim
  4. Kingsley Davis

 

Correct Answer:  Auguste Comte

 

Q.NO: 33. Which of the following is NOT a stage of socialization?

  1. Oral stage
  2. Despair stage
  3. Oedipal stage
  4. Latency stage

 

Correct Answer:  Despair stage

 

Q.NO: 34. Caste status is an example of which of the following status?

  1. Monetary
  2. Ascribed
  3. Achieved
  4. General

 

Correct Answer:  Ascribed

 

Q.NO: 35. The general process of acquiring culture is referred to as:

  1. Dispersion
  2. Diffusion
  3. Socialization
  4. Acculturation

 

Correct Answer:  Socialization

 

Q.NO: 36. Socialization is a process involving:

  1. Declaring everything as belonging to society
  2. Setting up the social norms
  3. Inducting people to adapt in society
  4. Normalization of criminals and anti-social elements

 

Correct Answer:  Inducting people to adapt in society

 

Q.NO: 37. Who said that man is a social animal?

  1. Maclver
  2. Auguste Comte
  3. Aristotle
  4. Ginsberg

 

Correct Answer: Aristotle

 

Q.NO: 38. Any small group marked by continuous close interaction of a highly personal and emotionally supportive nature is called a/an_ group.

  1. Reference
  2. Secondary
  3. Primary
  4. Interest

 

Correct Answer:  Primary

 

Q.NO: 39. Polyandry me:

  1. A form of marriage that joins one female with more than one male.
  2. A form of marriage that joins one male with more than one female.
  3. A form of marriage that joins one female with one male.
  4. Getting married in the same blood group.

 

Correct Answer:  A form of marriage that joins one female with more than one male.

 

Q.NO: 40. Providing education to the school, college and street children on prevention of drug addiction is an example of _______________ prevention.

  1. Primordial
  2. Tertiary
  3. Primary
  4. Secondary

 

Correct Answer:  Primordial

 

Q.NO: 41. Lack of oxygen in the blood stream is called:

  1. Hypoxemia
  2. Cyanosis
  3. Hypoxia
  4. Anoxemic

 

Correct Answer: Hypoxemia

 

Q.NO: 42. Under normal circumstances, concentration of oxygen in inspired air is about _________per cent.

  1. 100
  2. 6
  3. 29
  4. 21

 

Correct Answer:  21

Q.NO: 43. As per Kübler-Ross stages of grieving, refusing to believe that loss is happening/has happened is called:

  1. Bargaining
  2. Denial
  3. Acceptance
  4. Depression

 

Correct Answer:  Denial

 

 

Q.NO: 44. Which of the following organ is one of the primary regulator of body fluid and electrolyte balance?

  1. Intestine
  2. Kidney
  3. Stomach
  4. Lungs

 

Correct Answer:  Kidney

 

 

Q.NO: 45. What is the approximate normal level of haematocrit/packed cell volume in men?

  1. 5% to 15%
  2. 60% to 70%
  3. 40% to 50%
  4. d 20% to 35%

 

 

Correct Answer:  40% to 50%

 

 

Q.NO: 46. Which of the following tests need to be performed before radial artery cannulation to evaluate radial and ulnar arterial patency?

  1. Coop’s test
  2. Allen’s test
  3. Capillary refill test
  4. Buerger’s test

 

Correct Answer:  Allen’s test

 

 

Q.NO: 47. A group of symptoms is known as:

  1. Signs
  2. Syndrome
  3. Clinical manifestations
  4. Group symptoms

 

Correct Answer:  Syndrome

 

 

Q.NO: 48. Rhythmic waxing and waning of respiration is called:

  1. Hypoventilation
  2. Orthopnoea
  3. Hyperventilation
  4. Cheyne-Stokes respiration

 

Correct Answer:  Cheyne-Stokes respiration

 

 

Q.NO: 49. A bedridden patient is having intact skin at the sacral region, and the symptoms of warmness, pain and firm skin at the site. What is the stage of bedsore?

  1. Stage III
  2. Stage II
  3. Stage I
  4. Stage IV

 

Correct Answer:  Stage I

 

 

Q.NO: 50. Following death, the subjective response experienced by the surviving loved ones is called:

  1. Bereavement
  2. Mourning
  3. Compliance
  4. Grief

 

Correct Answer:  Bereavement

 

Q.NO: 51. Which of the following electrolytes does insulin help to move into the cells?

  1. Bicarbonates
  2. Chloride
  3. Carbonates
  4. Potassium

 

Correct Answer:  Bicarbonates

 

 

Q.NO: 52. Temperature of 98.7 degree Fahrenheit is approximately equal to ________ degree Celsius.

  1. 38.16
  2. 37.56
  3. 37.06
  4. 36.52

 

Correct Answer:  37.06

 

 

Q.NO: 53. Difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure is called:

  1. Pulse range
  2. Pulse length
  3. Pulse deficit
  4. Pulse pressure

 

Correct Answer: Pulse pressure

 

Q.NO: 54. Formula to calculate BMI is:

  1. Weight in kg divided by square of height in meters.
  2. Weight in kg divided by height in feet.
  3. Weight in kg divided by square of height in feet.
  4. Weight in kg divided by height in meters.

 

Correct Answer:  Weight in kg divided by square of height in meters.

 

 

 

Q.NO: 55. Which of the following equipment is used for the examination of the ear?

  1. Ophthalmoscope
  2. Laryngoscope
  3. Otoscope
  4. Proctoscope

 

Correct Answer:  Otoscope

 

Q.NO: 56. The specific gravity of the urine normally ranges approximately from:

  1. 1.8 to 2.0
  2. 1.5 to 1.8
  3. 0.75 to 1.00
  4. 1.01 to 1.025

 

Correct Answer: 1.01 to 1.025   

 

Q.NO: 57. Insertion of a tube inside the stomach through the nose is called nasogastric________.

  1. Irrigation
  2. Intubation
  3. Extubation
  4. Urigation

 

Correct Answer:  Intubation

 

Q.NO: 58. Intravenous solution of 0.45% sodium chloride is a/an __________ solution.

  1. Colloid
  2. Hypertonic
  3. Hypotonic
  4. Isotonic

 

Correct Answer:  Hypotonic

 

 Q.NO: 59. _____________ is the process of introducing a disinfectant solution to the internal environment of the body when someone pass away.

  1. Eubacterium
  2. Revaccination
  3. Embalming
  4. Rinsing

 

Correct Answer:  Embalming

 

Q.NO: 60. _____________ Enema is also called antispasmodic enema.

  1. Cold
  2. Carminative
  3. Antihelminthic
  4. Oil

 

Correct Answer:  Carminative

 

Q.NO: 61. HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) value reflects the blood glucose levels in the past months.

  1. 1
  2. 7
  3. 3
  4. 9

Correct Answer:  3

 

Q.NO:  62. The sudden fall of temperature from high to normal within a few hours is called:

  1. Hypothermia
  2. Lysis
  3. True crisis
  4. False crisis

 

Correct Answer:  True crisis

 

 

Q.NO: 63. In a healthy individual, weighing 70 kg at rest, the stroke volume is about:

  1. 150 mL
  2. 100 mL
  3. 50 ml
  4. 70 mL

 

Correct Answer:  70 mL

 

 

Q.NO: 64. A fever in which temperature remains above normal throughout the day and fluctuate more than 2 degrees Fahrenheit is known as __________fever.

  1. Iysis
  2. Remittent
  3. Inverted
  4. Intermittent

 

Correct Answer:  Remittent

 

 

Q.NO: 65. The site of pulse in the neck is called:

  1. Temporal
  2. Radial
  3. Carotid
  4. Popliteal

 

Correct Answer:  Carotid

 

 

Q.NO: 66. The gradual decrease in body’s temperature after death is called:

  1. Stiff mortis
  2. Algor mortis
  3. Rigor mortis
  4. Livor mortis

 

Correct Answer:  Algor mortis

 

 

Q.NO: 67. The discoloration that appears in the dependent areas of the body after death is called:

  1. Rigor mortis
  2. Livor mortis
  3. Algor mortis
  4. Stiff mortis

 

Correct Answer:  Livor mortis

 

 

Q.NO: 68. Kussmaul breathing is associated with:

  1. Heart failure
  2. Diabetic ketoacidosis
  3. Bronchial asthma
  4. Atelectasis

 

Correct Answer:  Diabetic ketoacidosis

 

 

Q.NO: 69. Absorptive dressings are intended to:

  1. Absorb nutrients for the wound
  2. Remove drainage from the bedsore
  3. Gather moisture from the atmosphere to keep the wound cool
  4. Absorb blood from veins

 

Correct Answer:  Remove drainage from the bedsore

 

 

Q.NO: 70. Which of the following medication orders are for every other day?

  1. qod
  2. qh
  3. qd
  4. bid

 

Correct Answer:  qod

 

 

Q.NO: 71. A patient is to receive 1000 mL of IV fluid in 6 hours. The drop factor is 15 drops per mL. At approximately how many drops per minute should the flow rate be set?

  1. 42 drops/min
  2. 21 drops/min
  3. 55 drops/min
  4. 33 drops/min

 

Correct Answer:  42 drops/min

 

 

Q.NO: 72. In which of the following positions is the patient at greatest risk of shearing force?

  1. Semi-Fowler’s position
  2. Lying supine in bed
  3. Trendelenburg position
  4. High-Fowler’s position

 

Correct Answer: High-Fowler’s position

 

 

 

Q.NO: 73. Movement of the joints away from the mid-line of the body is called:

  1. Addiction
  2. Adhesion
  3. Adduction
  4. Abduction

 

Correct Answer: Abduction

 

Q.NO: 74. What does the term Cheilosis mean?

  1. Cracking of lips
  2. Bad breath
  3. Inflammation of the gums
  4. Inflammation of the tongue

 

Correct Answer:  Cracking of lips

 

 

 

Q.NO: 75. Breathing that is normal in rate and depth is called:

  1. Bradypnea
  2. Tachypnea
  3. Apnea
  4. Eupnea

 

Correct Answer:  Eupnea

 

 

Q.NO: 76. Stiffness in the body that occurs after 2 to 4 hours after death is called:

  1. Livor mortis
  2. Algor mortis
  3. Stiff mortis
  4. Rigor mortis

 

Correct Answer:  Rigor mortis

 

 

 

Q.NO: 77. Which of the following is NOT an example of dry cold application?

  1. Cold compress
  2. Ice pack
  3. Ice cradle
  4. Ice bag

 

Correct Answer:  Cold compress

 

 

Q.NO: 78. The main intracellular cation is:

  1. Zinc
  2. Chloride
  3. Potassium
  4. Halide

 

 

Correct Answer:  Potassium

 

 

Q.NO: 79. Inflammation of the oral mucosa is known as:

  1. Gingivitis
  2. Glossitis
  3. Parotitis
  4. Stomatitis

 

Correct Answer:  Stomatitis

 

 

Q.NO: 80. Which of the following medication orders is administered immediately and only once?

  1. Single order
  2. PRN order
  3. Stat order
  4. Standing order

 

Correct Answer:  Stat order

 

Q.NO: 81. Koplik’s spots are the clinical feature of:

  1. Cholera
  2. Chickenpox
  3. Measles
  4. Pertussis

 

Correct Answer:  Measles

 

 Q.NO: 82. One CHC covers a population of ______________ in hilly areas.

  1. 80000
  2. 10000
  3. 30000
  4. 50000

 

Correct Answer:  80000

 

 

Q.NO: 83. The number of all current cases of a disease at one point of time is called:

  1. Period prevalence
  2. Point incidence
  3. Point prevalence
  4. Time prevalence

 

Correct Answer: A point prevalence

 

 

Q.NO: 84. In which year was the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) introduced?

  1. 2006
  2. 2008
  3. 2007
  4. 2005

 

Correct Answer: 2008  

 

 

Q.NO: 85. The hardness of water is expressed as:

  1. PPL
  2. mg/L
  3. mEq/ML
  4. mg%

 

Correct Answer: mg/L

 

 

Q.NO: 86. The route of administration of the hepatitis B vaccine is:

  1. Intramuscular
  2. Subcutaneous
  3. Intrathecal
  4. Intradermal

 

Correct Answer:  Intramuscular

 

 

Q.NO: 87. The constant presence of a disease or infection within a given geographic area is called:

  1. Sporadic
  2. Endemic
  3. Pandemic
  4. Epidemic

 

Correct Answer: Endemic

 

 

Q.NO: 88. The denominator used to calculate the crude birth rate is:

  1. School-going population
  2. Live births in that year
  3. Mid-year population in that year
  4. Population aged 18 years or above

 

Correct Answer: Mid-year population in that year

 

 

Q.NO: 89. What was the theme of World Health Day 2019?

  1. Halt the rise: beat diabetes
  2. Healthy heartbeat: healthy blood pressure
  3. Food safety
  4. Universal health coverage: everyone, everywhere.

 

Correct Answer:  Universal health coverage: everyone, everywhere.

 

 

Q.NO: 90. What is the minimum contact time required for the chlorination of water to take place?

  1. 10 minutes
  2. 90 minutes
  3. 60 minutes
  4. 30 minutes

 

Correct Answer:  30 minutes

 

 

Q.NO: 91. Which of the following digestive enzymes present in gastric juice is primarily responsible for breaking down proteins?

  1. Trypsin
  2. Pepsin
  3. Peptidases
  4. Chymotrypsin

 

Correct Answer:  Pepsin

 

Q.NO: 92. Emulsification of lipids in the small intestine requires:

  1. Gastric lipase
  2. Pepsin
  3. Pancreatic lipase
  4. Bile salts

 

Correct Answer: Bile salts

 

Q.NO: 93. Which of the following nutrients provides energy to the body?

  1. Fat
  2. Zinc
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin D

 

Correct Answer:  Fat

 

 

Q.NO: 94. Which of the following is the precursor to vitamin A?

  1. Pyridoxine
  2. Beta-carotene
  3. Thiamine
  4. Retinol

 

Correct Answer:  Beta-carotene

 

 

Q.NO: 95. An average healthy person with no diseases should ideally get ___________ of his/her daily calorie requirements from healthy fats.

  1. 50% to 60%
  2. 70% to 80%
  3. 20% to 30%
  4. 5% to 10%

 

Correct Answer:  20% to 30%

 

 

Q.NO: 96. In which organ does the absorption of iron take place?

  1. Colon
  2. Duodenum in the small intestine
  3. Liver
  4. Stomach

Correct Answer: Duodenum in the small intestine

 

 

Q.NO: 97. Vitamin B1 is also known as:

  1. Pyridoxine
  2. Thiamine
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Niacin

 

Correct Answer:  Thiamine

 

 

Q.NO: 98. Which of the following trace elements is essential for the synthesis of insulin?

  1. Cobalt
  2. Iron
  3. Zinc
  4. Sodium

 

Correct Answer:  Zinc

 

Q.NO: 99. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

  1. Niacin
  2. Thiamine
  3. Pyridoxine
  4. Valine

 

Correct Answer:  Valine

 

Q.NO: 100. Calories generated per gram of fat is approximate.

  1. 4 Kcals
  2. 15 Kcals
  3. 1 Kcals
  4. 9 Kcals

 

Correct Answer:  9 Kcals

 

Q.NO: 101. Which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?

  1. Ranitidine
  2. Famotidine
  3. Pantoprazole
  4. Sucralfate

 

Correct Answer:  Pantoprazole

 

Q.NO: 102. Diabetes insipidus is caused by the deficiency of which of the following hormones?

  1. Antidiuretic
  2. Glucagon
  3. Insulin
  4. Renin

 

Correct Answer:  Antidiuretic

 

 

Q.NO: 103. The name of the surgery in which there is the removal of duodenum, head of pancreas, gallbladder and bile ducts is called:

  1. Appendectomy
  2. Lumpectomy
  3. Discectomy
  4. Pancreatoduodenectomy

 

Correct Answer:  Pancreatoduodenectomy

 

Q.NO: 104. Bell’s Palsy is a disorder of the ____________ cranial nerve.

  1. 3rd
  2. 7th
  3. 9th
  4. 5th

 

Correct Answer:  7th

 

Q.NO: 105. The most common side effect of thrombolytic therapy is:

  1. Metabolic abnormalities
  2. Internal bleeding
  3. Compartment syndrome
  4. Acute renal failure

 

Correct Answer:  Internal bleeding

 

 

Q.NO: 106. Which type of solution causes water to shift from the cells into the plasma?

  1. Alkaline
  2. Hypotonic
  3. Acidic
  4. Hypertonic

 

Correct Answer:  Hypertonic

 

Q.NO: 107. An individual with which of the following blood groups is a universal donor?

  1. A -ve
  2. B +ve
  3. AB +ve
  4. O-ve

 

Correct Answer:  O-ve

 

 

Q.NO: 108. The loss of urine resulting from cognitive or environmental factors is the manifestation of:

  1. Overflow incontinence
  2. Functional incontinence
  3. Urge incontinence
  4. Reflex incontinence

 

 

Correct Answer:  Functional incontinence

 

 

Q.NO: 109. While assessing the level of consciousness of a patient using the Glasgow Coma Scale, which of the following score represents the best motor response from the patient?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

 

Correct Answer: 6  

 

Q.NO: 110. The loss of ability to recognize objects is called:

  1. Dysarthria
  2. Alexia
  3. Ataxia
  4. Agnosia

 

Correct Answer: Agnosia

 

Q.NO: 111. Which of the following is glandular tissue cancer?

  1. Liposarcoma
  2. Adenocarcinoma
  3. Neuroblastoma
  4. Osteogenic sarcoma

 

Correct Answer:  Adenocarcinoma (more…)

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April 24, 2022