SREE CHITRA TIRUNAL INSTITUTE FOR MEDICAL SCIENCES & TECHNOLOGY – NURSING OFFICER – A QUESTION PAPER 2023

श्री चित्रातिरुनालआयुर्विज्ञान और प्रौद्योगिकीसंस्थान, तिरुवनन्तपुरम, केरल – 695011 (एकराष्ट्रीय महत्वकासंस्थान, विज्ञानएवंप्रौद्योगिकीविभाग, भारतसरकार)

SREE CHITRA TIRUNAL INSTITUTE FOR MEDICAL SCIENCES AND TECHNOLOGY THIRUVANANTHAPURAM, KERALA – 695 011

Q.1. The nurses are participating in a health fair at the local mall and are giving influenza vaccine to senior citizens. What level of prevention are the nurses practicing?

1. Primary Prevention.
2. Secondary Prevention.
3. Tertiary Prevention.
4. Quaternary Prevention.

Q.2. Nursing care provided that is supported by reliable research is known as:

1. Evidence Based practice
2. Theory based practice
3. Knowledge based practice
4. Historical practice

Q.3. Who has decreased mortality by improving sanitation in the battlefields, resulting in a decrease of illness and infection?

1. Florence Nightingale
2. Clara Barton
3. Dorathea Dix
4. Lillian Wald

Q.4. Which of the following are the four basic techniques of physical examination?

1. Interview, inspection, percussion, resonance
2. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
3. Interview, subjective data, objective data, closure
4. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

Q.5. Which of the following terms denotes patient’s inability to void even though the kidneys are producing urine that enters the bladder ?

1. Urgency
2. Retention
3. Oliguria
4. Dysuria

Q.6. Cheyne-stokes respiration describes

1. Rapid breathing
2. Difficult breathing
3. Moist or stertorous breathing
4. Periods of apnea and hyperventilation

Q.7. The angle of insertion for an intramuscular injection is

1. 90 degrees
2. 30 degrees
3. 160 degrees
4. 180 degrees

Q.8. The purpose of making mitten corners while doing bed making is

1. To keep bed linen secure
2. To provide warmth
3. To prevent cross infection
4. To prevent foot drop

Q.9. One example of isotonic solution is

1. 0.9% NaCl
2. 0.45% NaCl
3. 3% NaCI
4. 5% NaCI

Q.10. The nurse is preparing to take a pulse on a patient who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin), which affects the heart rate. This assessment needs to be completed prior to the medication administration. Which skill is correct when assessing the pulse of this patient?

1. A radial pulse taken for 15 seconds
2. A femoral pulse taken for 15 seconds
3. A carotid pulse taken for a full minute
4. An apical pulse taken for a full minute.

Q.11. Supination is

1. Turn lower arm and hand so palm is down
2. Turn lower arm and hand so palm is up
3. Turn palm toward the inner aspect of forearm
4. Turn fingers position to midline

Q.12. Which of the following is indication for a binder to be placed around a surgical patient with new abdominal wound?

1. Collection of wound drainage
2. Providing support to abdominal tissues when coughing and walking
3. Reduction of abdominal swelling
4. Stimulation of peristalsis

Q.13. Which of the following is the most effective way to break the chain of infection

1. Hand hygiene
2. Wearing gloves
3. Placing patients in isolation
4. Providing private rooms for patients

Q.14. When the patient develops dyspnea, what is the first intervention that is to be carried out?

1. Take Blood Pressure
2. Elevate the foot of the bed
3. Remove pillows from the head
4. Elevate the head of the bed.

Q.15. While giving oral medication ____________position is essential to prevent aspiration.

1. High Fowler’s
2. Left lateral
3. Sim’s
4. Supine

Q.16. The test considered as gold standard to detect COVID 19 is

1. The reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RTPCR) test
2. Rapid antigen test
3. Cartridge based nucleic acid amplification test
4. Rapid diagnostic test

Q.17. The nurse is giving discharge instructions to a newly diagnosed diabetic. The nurse discusses with the patient what the dietary intake should be. This is an example of which health care service?

1. Illness prevention
2. Restorative care
3. Health promotion
4. Tertiary care

Q.18. The multidisciplinary care model used to move patients efficiently from admission to discharge

1. Team nursing
2. Nursing process
3. Interdisciplinary care
4. Case management

Q.19. The leading cause of cognitive impairment in old age is

1. Stroke
2. Malnutrition
3. Alzheimer’s disease
4. Loss of cardiac reserve

Q.20. A patient needs to learn to use a walker. Which domain is required for learning the skill?

1. Affective domain
2. Cognitive domain
3. Attentional domain
4. Psychomotor domain

Q.21. The nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia who has severe malnutrition. The nurse recognizes that, because of the nutrition status, the patient is at increased risk for

1. Cardiac disease
2. Sepsis
3. Diarrhea
4. Insomnia

Q.22. An elderly patient comes to the hospital with complaints of severe weakness and diarrhea for several days. It is important to assess which one of the following problems initially?

1. Malnutrition
2. Dehydration
3. Skin breakdown
4. Incontinence

Q.23. When assessing the lower extremities for arterial function, which intervention should the nurse perform?

1. Assessing the medial malleoli for pitting edema
2. Performing Allen’s test
3. Assessing the Homans test
4. Palpating the pedal pulses

Q.24. While auscultating the adult patient’s lungs, the nurse hears loud, bubble sounds during  inspiration that do not disappear after the patient coughs. Which finding should the nurse document from the lung assessment?

1. Rhonchi
2. Coarse crackles
3. Sibilant wheeze
4. Pleural friction rub

Q.25. A patient’s effort to manage psychological stress is known as:

1. Secondary appraisal
2. Coping
3. Primary appraisal
4. Distress

Q.26. The nurse assists a patient inting a stressful event with the patient’s reaction to the event. This approach is known as:

1. Evaluative care
2. Problem solving
3. Situational intervention
4. Crisis intervention

Q.27. The normal Potassium level in the blood for adults

1. 2-3 mEq/L
2. 2.9-6.2 mEq/L
3. 3.5-5.2 mEq/L
4. 3.4 -6.8 mEq/L

Q.28. Before the nurse washes hands when leaving an isolation room, what is the last thing that is removed?

1. Head cover
2. Mask
3. Gown
4. Goggles

Q.29. To remove a glove that is contaminated what should the nurse do first?

1. Grasp the outside of the cuff or palm of the glove and pull it away from the hand without  touching the wrist or fingers
2. Put the thumb inside the wrist to slide the glove over the hand with minimal touching of the  hand by the other gloved hand
3. Pull the glove off the back of the hand until it slides off the entire hand and discard it
4. Rinse the gloves before removing them to minimize the contamination factor.

Q.30. Which one of the following is a common condition that causes numbness, tingling, and pain in the hand and forearm?

1. Carpal tunnel syndrome
2. Tarsal tunnel syndrome
3. Bell’s palsy
4. Dystonia

Q.31. Night blindness is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin:

1. A
2. D
3. E
4. K

Q.32. Which one of the following vitamins is NOT fat-soluble?

1. A
2. D
3. B
4. K

Q.33. Which of the following is the most sensitive indicator of changes in neurologic status?

1. Loss of consciousness
2. Memory
3. Pain
4. Vascular flow

Q.34. Patients with bacterial meningitis demonstrate which one of the following?

1. Decreased CSF glucose level
2. Increased CSF glucose level
3. Decreased CSF protein level
4. Increased CSF magnesium level

Q.35.Transsphenoidal approach is used in the excision of which type of tumors?

1. Glial tumors
2. Pituitary tumors
3. Oligodendrogliomas
4. Acoustic neuromas

Q.36. Which of the following is an incorrect match?

1. Dysphagia: inability to speak
2. Hemiparesis: weakness
3. Hemiplegia: paralysis
4. Aphasia: inability to communicate

Q.37. Phenytoin, carbamazepine, and valproate are drugs classified under the category?

1. Neuromuscular blocking agent
2. Antiepileptic drugs
3. Antidepressants
4. Antipsychotic drugs

Q.38. Cholinergic crisis occurs because of overmedication in which of the following  conditions?

1. Myasthenia gravis
2. Guillain-Barre syndrome
3. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
4. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Q.39. One of the primary nursing objectives in a client with a Cerebro-Vascular Accident is maintenance of  the airway. To achieve this objective, the nurse should initially place the client in the:

1. Prone position
2. Lateral position
3. Supine position
4. Trendelenburg position

Q.40. The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation has experienced a transient ischemic attack. Which of the following medication would the nurse anticipate being ordered for client at discharge?

1. An oral anticoagulant medication
2. A beta-blocker medication
3. An anti-hyperuricemia medication
4. A thrombolytic medication

Q.41. Which one of the following is a primary brain tumor?

1. Cerebral angioma
2. Glioma
3. Fibroadenoma
4. Wilm’s tumor

Q.42. A CT scan of the head shows a collection of blood between the skull and dura mater. Which type of head injury does this finding suggest?

1. Subdural hematoma
2. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
3. Epidural hematoma
4. Contusion

Q.43. Signs of increased intracranial pressure are:  ANDR

1. Weak rapid pulse, normal blood pressure, fever, lethargy
2. Rapid weak pulse, fall in blood pressure, low temperature
3. Slow bounding pulse, raising blood pressure, high temperature
4. Slow bounding pulse, fall in blood pressure, low temperature

Q.44. The nurse is assessing a client with tentative diagnosis of brain tumor. What would the nurse  anticipate the client’s primary complaint to be?

1. Decreased appetite
2. Frequent insomnia
3. Recurrent headache
4. Peripheral edema

Q.45. Temporary paralysis of seventh cranial nerve that causes paralysis only of the affected  side of face occurs in:

1. Bell’s Palsy
2. Trigeminal neuralgia
3. Myelitis
4. Multiple Sclerosis

Q.46. The correct angle for ‘Head of the bed’ elevation in ventilated patients to decrease respiratory complications:

1. Between 20-30 degrees
2. Between 30-45 degrees
3. Between 45-60 degrees
4. 90 degrees

Q.47. Which layer encloses the valves of the heart?

1. Pericardium
2. Myocardium
3. Epicardium
4. Endocardium

Q.48. Which 2 valves of the heart open during ventricular contraction of the heart?

1. Aortic and tricuspid valves
2. Pulmonic and aortic valves
3. Pulmonic and tricuspid valves
4. Aortic and mitral valves

Q.49. The amount of resistance to ejection of blood from ventricle is called

1. Preload
2. Ejection fraction
3. Afterload
4. End diastolic pressure

Q.50. Which of the following blood vessels has two major branches.  descending artery?

1. Posterior interventricular artery
2. Right pulmonary artery
3. Right coronary artery
4. Left coronary artery

Q.51. T wave in the ECG graph represents

1. Ventricular depolarization
2. Atrial depolarization
3. Ventricular repolarisation
4. Atrial repolarization

Q.52. Which diagnostic test can measure the size and ejection fraction of heart?

1. Electrocardiography
2. Echocardiography
3. Treadmill test
4. Barium swallow

Q.53. After cardiac catheterization, immediate priority nursing intervention is

1. Check for distal pulses and bleeding from site
2. Provide bed rest for 4-6 hours and move the extremities every hourly
3. Ensure patient safety by helping him get out of the bed
4. Instruct to drink adequate fluid to flush out the contrast agent if used

Q.54. Osler nodes and Janeway lesions are manifestations of:

1. Myocarditis
2. Endocarditis
3. Pericarditis
4. Aortic regurgitation

Q.55. With aging, the blood pressure is often higher due to

1. Loss of muscle mass
2. Change in exercise and diet
3. Decreased peripheral resistance
4. Decreased elasticity in arterial walls

Q.56. People with mechanical valves require to take these medications lifelong

1. Antipyretics
2. Analgesics
3. Anticoagulants
4. Antibiotics

Q.57. Which of the following sign is positive in deep vein thrombosis?

1. Homan’s sign
2. Jaquemers’ sign
3. Kerning’s sign
4. Hegar’s sign

Q.58. Which one of the following cardiac rhythm is NON-SHOCKABLE?

1. Ventricular tachycardia
2. Ventricular fibrillation
3. Pulseless electrical activity
4. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

Q.59. Which one of the following represents the full form of AED?

1. Autonomous External Defibrillator
2. Automated Extracorporeal Defibrillator
3. Automated External Desynchronizer
4. Automated External Defibrillator

Q.60. The inotropic medication primarily:

1. Decreases afterload
2. Increases the force of contraction
3. Decreases Preload
4. Decreases heart rate

Q.61. Which of the following ECG findings alerts the nurse that the client needs an antiarrhythmic?

1. Normal sinus rhythm
2. Sinus bradycardia
3. Sinus arrhythmia
4. Frequent ventricular ectopy

Q.62. A nurse has performed an ECG. At the time of interpretation, she found that it is a normal sinus rhythm. The normal duration of the QRS complex is:

1. 0.08-0.10 Sec
2. 0.2-0.8 Sec
3. 0.8-1.2 Sec
4. 1.2-2.0 Sec

Q.63. The nurse needs to inform the cardiac surgeon immediately when she observes which one of the following parameters during the first postoperative day of a patient who has undergone Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting?

1. Urine output <0.5 ml/kg/hour
2. Temperature of 99-degree Fahrenheit
3. Chest drainage of 100 ml over 4-6 hours
4. Discomfort at the incision site

Q.64. A patient reports that he experiences chest pain whenever he performs activities, but it is relieved by taking a rest. This is an example of:

1. Unstable Angina
2. Stable Angina
3. Variant Angina
4. Prinzmetal Angina

Q.65. Rheumatic heart disease results from rheumatic fever which is caused by

1. Bacterial infection
2. Protozoal infection
3. Viral infection
4. Fungal infection

Q.66. Heart valve affected most by rheumatic fever is NOLOG)

1. Tricuspid valve
2. Mitral valve
3. Aortic valve
4. Pulmonary valve

Q.67. Diagnostic Criteria used for Infective Endocarditis.

1. Jones Criteria
2. NYHA classification
3. Dukes Criteria
4. Rockall Criteria

Q.68. Reticular activating system controls which one of the following?

1. Consciousness
2. Reflex action
3. Memory
4. Speech and vocabulary

Q.69. Most used site for test dose of medications is

1. Forearm
2. Gluteal region
3. Deltoid muscle
4. Fingertips

Q.70. The pneumatic bed is used to prevent:

1. Joint pain
2. Pressure ulcer
3. Back pain
4. Hip pain

Q.71. A client with Parkinson’s disease is experiencing anorexia and vomiting since beginning of treatment with levodopa. What should be the initial action?

1. Assess his food preference
2. Monitor blood pressure
3. Hold medication
4. Administer medication with food

Q.72. Core body temperature is highest in the

1. Early morning
2. Noon
3. Late afternoon
4. Night

Q.73. Which one of these is not a cardiac biomarker?

1. Alkaline phosphatase
2. Creatinine kinase
3. Troponin
4. Myoglobin

Q.74. A patient presents to the emergency department with blood pressure 180/130 mmHg, headache, and confusion. Which additional finding is consistent with diagnosis of hypertensive emergency?

1. Retinopathy
2. Bradycardia
3. Jaundice
4. Urinary retention

Q.75. The nurse understands that providing a complete bed bath, may have which one of the following cardiovascular effects? She therefore plans for rest periods during the bath.

1. increase in oxygen consumption
2. decrease in blood supply to the skin
3. decrease in preload
4. increase in afterload

Q.76. Cushing’s triad refers to a set of signs that are indicative of

1. increased intra-abdominal pressure
2. increased intra-thoracic pressure
3. increased intra-ocular pressure
4. increased intracranial pressure

Q.77. Which one of the following is a type of Generalized seizure?

1. Absence seizure
2. Pseudo seizure
3. Partial seizure
4. Complex partial

Q.78. Which of the following is a non-drug therapy for children with epileptic seizure?

1. Ketogenic diet
2. High protein diet
3. Low fat diet
4. High fiber diet

Q.79. Sound created by turbulent abnormal blood flow of heart, heard during auscultation:

1. Friction rub
2. Gallop
3. Murmurs
4. Rasping

Q.80. Which one of the following is the sound that provides the systolic pressure reading and is the first Korotkoff sound (Phase 1) heard as the pressure in the blood pressure cuff is released?

1. A sharp tapping sound
2. A swishing/whooshing sound
3. A thump
4. A soft, blowing, muffled sound

Q.81. Which of the following treatment strategies have been shown to improve the outcome in patients diagnosed to have Guillain-Barres syndrome?

1. Heat therapy
2. Immobilization
3. Anticholinesterases
4. Plasmapheresis

Q.82. Parkinson’s disease includes all these symptoms except:

1. Bradykinesia and loss of postural reflexes
2. Stiff limbs
3. Thunderclap headache
4. Tremors of hand, arms, legs, jaw, and face

Q.83. Which term would the nurse use to document pain at one site that is perceived in another site?

1. Referred pain
2. Phantom pain
3. Intractable pain
4. Aftermath of pain

Q.84. The two main factors for determining blood pressure are peripheral resistance and which one of the following:

1. Cardiac output
2. Age
3. Pulse pressure
4. Pulse deficit

Q.85. In infectious diseases such as hepatitis B and C, a reservoir for pathogens is:

1. The blood
2. The urinary tract
3. The respiratory tract
4. The reproductive tract

Q.86. Involvement of which of the following structures will lead to right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia?

1. Left Middle Cerebral Artery
2. Vertebral Artery
3. Brain stem
4. Right Middle Cerebral Artery.

Q.87. For doing nasotracheal suctioning, the catheter should be inserted during which of the following patient activities?

1. Swallowing
2. Inhaling
3. Exhaling
4. Retching

Q.88. Which of the following is the organism that causes peptic ulcer disease?

1. Staphylococcus
2. Corynebacterium
3. Helicobacter pylori
4. Streptococcus.

Q.89. Which of the following is the drug of choice to treat anaphylaxis?

1. Atropine
2. Sodium bicarbonate
3. Digoxin
4. Epinephrine

Q.90. Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of inadequate oxygenation?

1. Vomiting
2. Bradycardia
3. Restlessness
4. Hypotension

Q.91. The principle of fairness is known as:

1. Advocacy
2. Autonomy
3. Justice
4. Accountability

Q.92. The appendix is in:

1. The left antecubital fossa
2. The left iliac fossa
3. The right antecubital fossa
4. The right iliac fossa

Q.93. The oxygen cylinder colour code in India is

1. Black body and white shoulder
2. Black
3. Green body and white shoulder
4. Light blue

Q.94. fMRI stands for

1. Fast Magnetic Resonance Imaging
2. Fundamental Magnetic Resonance Imaging
3. Fractional Magnetic Resonance Imaging
4. Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging

Q.95. Kussmaul breathing is a deep and labored breathing pattern often associated with

1. Diabetic ketoacidosis
2. Hepatitis
3. Hepatomegaly
4. Acute Renal Failure

Q.96. RBSK full form?

1. Rashtriyabalshramikkaryakram
2. Rashtriyabalsurakshakaryakram
3. Rashtriyabalswasthyakaryakram
4. Rashtriyabalshramikkalyan

Q.97 The natural pacemaker of the heart is

1. AV node
2. SA node
3. Purkinje fiber
4. Bundle of His

Q.98 Short shuffling gait is characteristically seen in

1. Alzheimer’s disease
2. Parkinson’s disease
3. Multiple sclerosis
4. Myasthenia gravis

99) What is a 1% solution?

1. 10 mg in 1 ml
2. 1 mg in 1 ml
3. 100 mg in 1ml
4. 0.10 mg in 1 ml

Q.100) Spinal cord is continuous with which part of the brain?

1. Medulla oblongata
2. Cerebrum
3. Midbrain
4. Pons