AIIMS Patna Nursing Officer Question paper Answer Key 2020

AIIMS Patna Nursing Officer Question paper Answer Key 2020

AIIMS Patna Nursing Officer Question paper Answer Key 2020

AIIMS RAIPUR - 2017

 

 

Professional Examination Board, Bhopal
Group-05 (Staff Nurse) Recruitment Test -2021 (Re-Exam for “K” Paper)

Shift – 1

 

 

AIIMS Patna Nursing Officer Question paper Answer Key 2020

 

Q.NO: 1. The apex of the heart is formed mostly by the:

  1. Left ventricle
  2. Right atrium
  3. Left atrium
  4. Central ventricle

 

Correct Answer:  Left ventricle

 

Q.NO: 2. Which of the following is the largest cranial nerve?

  1. Cranial VI
  2. Cranial nerve X
  3. Cranial nerve VII
  4. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)

 

Correct Answer: Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)

 

 

Q.NO: 3. Tarsals of the ankles are examples of which type of bone?

  1. Short bones
  2. Sesamoid bones
  3. Long bones
  4. Pneumatic bones

 

Correct Answer:  Short bones

 

Q.NO: 4. How many bones are there in the lower extremities in a normal adult?

  1. 58
  2. 62
  3. 64
  4. 60

 

Correct Answer:  62

 

Q.NO: 5. What is the approximate maximum air volume in the lung for normal healthy adult?

  1. 2400 mL
  2. 3000 mL
  3. 300 ml
  4. 6000 mL

 

Correct Answer: 6000 mL

 

Q.NO: 6. Carpometacarpal joint is an example of which of the following types of joints?

  1. Hinge
  2. Ball and socket
  3. Pivot
  4. Saddle

 

Correct Answer:  Saddle

 

 

Q.NO: 7. Which of the following layers of the adrenal gland secretes glucocorticoids?

  1. Adrenal medulla
  2. Zona glomerulosa
  3. Zona reticularis
  4. Zona fasciculate

 

Correct Answer:  Zona fasciculate

 

Q.NO: 8. Which of the following is an example of ball-and-socket joints?

  1. Skull joint
  2. Thumb joint
  3. Hip joint
  4. Elbow joint

 

Correct Answer:  Hip joint

 

Q.NO: 9. What is the synonym of Clotting Factor II?

  1. Christmas factor.
  2. Fibrinogen
  3. Calcium
  4. Prothrombin

 

Correct Answer:  Prothrombin

 

Q.NO: 10. Which of the following quadriceps femoris muscles help in flexion of the thigh?

  1. Rectus femoris
  2. Vastus medialis
  3. Vastus intermedius
  4. Vastus lateralis

 

Correct Answer:  Rectus femoris

 

Q.NO: 11. Which of the following parts of the brain controls body temperature?

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Hippocampus
  3. Pons
  4. Amygdala

 

Correct Answer:  Hypothalamus

 

Q.NO: 12. How many pairs of cervical nerves are there in the spinal cord?

  1. 5
  2. 9
  3. 8
  4. 12

 

Correct Answer:  8

 

Q.NO: 13. The elbow is an example of a _ joint.

  1. Hinge.
  2. Pivot
  3. Condyloid
  4. Planar

 

Correct Answer:  Hinge.

 

Q.NO: 14. The expanded ends of a long bone are called:

  1. Tubercle
  2. Epicondyle
  3. Diaphysis
  4. Epiphyses

 

Correct Answer:  Epiphyses

 

Q.NO: 15. The posterior pituitary consists mainly of__________.

  1. Beta cells
  2. C cells
  3. T cells
  4. Neuronal projections

 

Correct Answer:  Neuronal projections

 

Q.NO: 16. Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted from the anterior pituitary?

  1. Adrenocorticotropic
  2. Prolactin
  3. Human growth hormone
  4. Oxytocin

 

Correct Answer:  Oxytocin

 

Q.NO: 17. A_______________ is a cell that manufactures and stores the protein keratin.

  1. Keraticellyte
  2. Keracyte
  3. Keratinocyte
  4. Keratolytic

 

 

Correct Answer:  Keratinocyte

 

Q.NO: 18. Which of the following is an example of synarthrosis joint?

  1. Fibrous joints of the skull sutures
  2. Wrist joints
  3. Hip joints
  4. Elbow joint

 

Correct Answer:  Fibrous joints of the skull sutures

 

Q.NO: 19. Which of the following hormones inhibits release of growth hormone?

  1. Dopamine
  2. Somatotropin
  3. Somatostatin
  4. Thyrotropin inhibiting hormone

 

 

Correct Answer:  Somatostatin

 

Q.NO: 20. Oxytocin is mainly involved in which of the following functions?

  1. Motor skills
  2. Childbirth and lactation
  3. Growth and mental ability
  4. Regulation of blood pressure

 

Correct Answer:  Childbirth and lactation

 

Q.NO: 21. Which of the following is NOT related to MMR vaccine?  

  1. Rubella
  2. Measles
  3. Rickets
  4. Mumps

 

Correct Answer:  Rickets

 

 

Q.NO: 22. Who among the following devised the autoclave used for sterilization?

  1. Charles Chamberland
  2. Robert Koch
  3. Edward Jenner
  4. Anton van Leeuwenhoek

 

Correct Answer:  Charles Chamberland

 

 

Q.NO: 23. Widal, a serological test, is used to detect the presence of which of the following pathogenic microorganisms?

  1. E. coli
  2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  3. Haemophilus influenzae
  4. Salmonella typhi

 

Correct Answer:  Salmonella typhi

 

Q.NO: 24. The causative agent of Lyme disease is:

  1. Rickettsia prowazekii
  2. Alphavirus
  3. Borrelia burgdorferi
  4. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

 

Correct Answer:  Borrelia burgdorferi

 

Q.NO: 25. Which of the following microorganisms causes gonorrhea?

  1. Stylus gonorrhoeae
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. Stereotyoist gonorrhoeae
  4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

 

Correct Answer:  Neisseria gonorrhoeae

 

Q.NO: 26. What is the optimum temperature in an autoclave to achieve sterility?

  1. 121°C for 30 minutes
  2. 60°C for 30 minutes
  3. 34°C for 30 minutes
  4. 27°C for 20 minutes

 

Correct Answer:  121°C for 30 minutes

 

Q.NO: 27. Which of the following involves the introduction of antibodies into the body from an animal or person already immune to the disease?

  1. Active immunity
  2. Artificially acquired passive immunity
  3. Naturally acquired passive immunity
  4. Innate immunity

 

Correct Answer:  Artificially acquired passive immunity

 

Q.NO: 28. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by:

  1. IgG
  2. IgE
  3. IgM
  4. IgA

 

Correct Answer:  IgE

 

Q.NO: 29. Rod-shaped bacteria are called:

  1. Cocci
  2. Clusters
  3. Bacillus
  4. Spirochetes

 

Correct Answer:  Bacillus

 

Q.NO: 30. Which of the following is true about IgM?

  1. It is not produced by vertebrates.
  2. It forms the initial immune response.
  3. It is not an isotypes of antibody.
  4. It is the smallest antibody.

 

Correct Answer:  It forms the initial immune response.

 

 

Q.NO: 31. As per 2011 census survey,_______________ per cent of the population of India suffer from disability (in the identified 8 categories).

  1. 2.21
  2. 1.2
  3. 2.5
  4. 3.1

 

Correct Answer:  2.21

 

Q.NO: 32. Who is considered as the father of sociology?

  1. Auguste Comte
  2. Maclver
  3. Emile Durkheim
  4. Kingsley Davis

 

Correct Answer:  Auguste Comte

 

Q.NO: 33. Which of the following is NOT a stage of socialization?

  1. Oral stage
  2. Despair stage
  3. Oedipal stage
  4. Latency stage

 

Correct Answer:  Despair stage

 

Q.NO: 34. Caste status is an example of which of the following status?

  1. Monetary
  2. Ascribed
  3. Achieved
  4. General

 

Correct Answer:  Ascribed

 

Q.NO: 35. The general process of acquiring culture is referred to as:

  1. Dispersion
  2. Diffusion
  3. Socialization
  4. Acculturation

 

Correct Answer:  Socialization

 

Q.NO: 36. Socialization is a process involving:

  1. Declaring everything as belonging to society
  2. Setting up the social norms
  3. Inducting people to adapt in society
  4. Normalization of criminals and anti-social elements

 

Correct Answer:  Inducting people to adapt in society

 

Q.NO: 37. Who said that man is a social animal?

  1. Maclver
  2. Auguste Comte
  3. Aristotle
  4. Ginsberg

 

Correct Answer: Aristotle

 

Q.NO: 38. Any small group marked by continuous close interaction of a highly personal and emotionally supportive nature is called a/an_ group.

  1. Reference
  2. Secondary
  3. Primary
  4. Interest

 

Correct Answer:  Primary

 

Q.NO: 39. Polyandry me:

  1. A form of marriage that joins one female with more than one male.
  2. A form of marriage that joins one male with more than one female.
  3. A form of marriage that joins one female with one male.
  4. Getting married in the same blood group.

 

Correct Answer:  A form of marriage that joins one female with more than one male.

 

Q.NO: 40. Providing education to the school, college and street children on prevention of drug addiction is an example of _______________ prevention.

  1. Primordial
  2. Tertiary
  3. Primary
  4. Secondary

 

Correct Answer:  Primordial

 

Q.NO: 41. Lack of oxygen in the blood stream is called:

  1. Hypoxemia
  2. Cyanosis
  3. Hypoxia
  4. Anoxemic

 

Correct Answer: Hypoxemia

 

Q.NO: 42. Under normal circumstances, concentration of oxygen in inspired air is about _________per cent.

  1. 100
  2. 6
  3. 29
  4. 21

 

Correct Answer:  21

Q.NO: 43. As per Kübler-Ross stages of grieving, refusing to believe that loss is happening/has happened is called:

  1. Bargaining
  2. Denial
  3. Acceptance
  4. Depression

 

Correct Answer:  Denial

 

 

Q.NO: 44. Which of the following organ is one of the primary regulator of body fluid and electrolyte balance?

  1. Intestine
  2. Kidney
  3. Stomach
  4. Lungs

 

Correct Answer:  Kidney

 

 

Q.NO: 45. What is the approximate normal level of haematocrit/packed cell volume in men?

  1. 5% to 15%
  2. 60% to 70%
  3. 40% to 50%
  4. d 20% to 35%

 

 

Correct Answer:  40% to 50%

 

 

Q.NO: 46. Which of the following tests need to be performed before radial artery cannulation to evaluate radial and ulnar arterial patency?

  1. Coop’s test
  2. Allen’s test
  3. Capillary refill test
  4. Buerger’s test

 

Correct Answer:  Allen’s test

 

 

Q.NO: 47. A group of symptoms is known as:

  1. Signs
  2. Syndrome
  3. Clinical manifestations
  4. Group symptoms

 

Correct Answer:  Syndrome

 

 

Q.NO: 48. Rhythmic waxing and waning of respiration is called:

  1. Hypoventilation
  2. Orthopnoea
  3. Hyperventilation
  4. Cheyne-Stokes respiration

 

Correct Answer:  Cheyne-Stokes respiration

 

 

Q.NO: 49. A bedridden patient is having intact skin at the sacral region, and the symptoms of warmness, pain and firm skin at the site. What is the stage of bedsore?

  1. Stage III
  2. Stage II
  3. Stage I
  4. Stage IV

 

Correct Answer:  Stage I

 

 

Q.NO: 50. Following death, the subjective response experienced by the surviving loved ones is called:

  1. Bereavement
  2. Mourning
  3. Compliance
  4. Grief

 

Correct Answer:  Bereavement

 

Q.NO: 51. Which of the following electrolytes does insulin help to move into the cells?

  1. Bicarbonates
  2. Chloride
  3. Carbonates
  4. Potassium

 

Correct Answer:  Bicarbonates

 

 

Q.NO: 52. Temperature of 98.7 degree Fahrenheit is approximately equal to ________ degree Celsius.

  1. 38.16
  2. 37.56
  3. 37.06
  4. 36.52

 

Correct Answer:  37.06

 

 

Q.NO: 53. Difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure is called:

  1. Pulse range
  2. Pulse length
  3. Pulse deficit
  4. Pulse pressure

 

Correct Answer: Pulse pressure

 

Q.NO: 54. Formula to calculate BMI is:

  1. Weight in kg divided by square of height in meters.
  2. Weight in kg divided by height in feet.
  3. Weight in kg divided by square of height in feet.
  4. Weight in kg divided by height in meters.

 

Correct Answer:  Weight in kg divided by square of height in meters.

 

 

 

Q.NO: 55. Which of the following equipment is used for the examination of the ear?

  1. Ophthalmoscope
  2. Laryngoscope
  3. Otoscope
  4. Proctoscope

 

Correct Answer:  Otoscope

 

Q.NO: 56. The specific gravity of the urine normally ranges approximately from:

  1. 1.8 to 2.0
  2. 1.5 to 1.8
  3. 0.75 to 1.00
  4. 1.01 to 1.025

 

Correct Answer: 1.01 to 1.025   

 

Q.NO: 57. Insertion of a tube inside the stomach through the nose is called nasogastric________.

  1. Irrigation
  2. Intubation
  3. Extubation
  4. Urigation

 

Correct Answer:  Intubation

 

Q.NO: 58. Intravenous solution of 0.45% sodium chloride is a/an __________ solution.

  1. Colloid
  2. Hypertonic
  3. Hypotonic
  4. Isotonic

 

Correct Answer:  Hypotonic

 

 Q.NO: 59. _____________ is the process of introducing a disinfectant solution to the internal environment of the body when someone pass away.

  1. Eubacterium
  2. Revaccination
  3. Embalming
  4. Rinsing

 

Correct Answer:  Embalming

 

Q.NO: 60. _____________ Enema is also called antispasmodic enema.

  1. Cold
  2. Carminative
  3. Antihelminthic
  4. Oil

 

Correct Answer:  Carminative

 

Q.NO: 61. HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) value reflects the blood glucose levels in the past months.

  1. 1
  2. 7
  3. 3
  4. 9

Correct Answer:  3

 

Q.NO:  62. The sudden fall of temperature from high to normal within a few hours is called:

  1. Hypothermia
  2. Lysis
  3. True crisis
  4. False crisis

 

Correct Answer:  True crisis

 

 

Q.NO: 63. In a healthy individual, weighing 70 kg at rest, the stroke volume is about:

  1. 150 mL
  2. 100 mL
  3. 50 ml
  4. 70 mL

 

Correct Answer:  70 mL

 

 

Q.NO: 64. A fever in which temperature remains above normal throughout the day and fluctuate more than 2 degrees Fahrenheit is known as __________fever.

  1. Iysis
  2. Remittent
  3. Inverted
  4. Intermittent

 

Correct Answer:  Remittent

 

 

Q.NO: 65. The site of pulse in the neck is called:

  1. Temporal
  2. Radial
  3. Carotid
  4. Popliteal

 

Correct Answer:  Carotid

 

 

Q.NO: 66. The gradual decrease in body’s temperature after death is called:

  1. Stiff mortis
  2. Algor mortis
  3. Rigor mortis
  4. Livor mortis

 

Correct Answer:  Algor mortis

 

 

Q.NO: 67. The discoloration that appears in the dependent areas of the body after death is called:

  1. Rigor mortis
  2. Livor mortis
  3. Algor mortis
  4. Stiff mortis

 

Correct Answer:  Livor mortis

 

 

Q.NO: 68. Kussmaul breathing is associated with:

  1. Heart failure
  2. Diabetic ketoacidosis
  3. Bronchial asthma
  4. Atelectasis

 

Correct Answer:  Diabetic ketoacidosis

 

 

Q.NO: 69. Absorptive dressings are intended to:

  1. Absorb nutrients for the wound
  2. Remove drainage from the bedsore
  3. Gather moisture from the atmosphere to keep the wound cool
  4. Absorb blood from veins

 

Correct Answer:  Remove drainage from the bedsore

 

 

Q.NO: 70. Which of the following medication orders are for every other day?

  1. qod
  2. qh
  3. qd
  4. bid

 

Correct Answer:  qod

 

 

Q.NO: 71. A patient is to receive 1000 mL of IV fluid in 6 hours. The drop factor is 15 drops per mL. At approximately how many drops per minute should the flow rate be set?

  1. 42 drops/min
  2. 21 drops/min
  3. 55 drops/min
  4. 33 drops/min

 

Correct Answer:  42 drops/min

 

 

Q.NO: 72. In which of the following positions is the patient at greatest risk of shearing force?

  1. Semi-Fowler’s position
  2. Lying supine in bed
  3. Trendelenburg position
  4. High-Fowler’s position

 

Correct Answer: High-Fowler’s position

 

 

 

Q.NO: 73. Movement of the joints away from the mid-line of the body is called:

  1. Addiction
  2. Adhesion
  3. Adduction
  4. Abduction

 

Correct Answer: Abduction

 

Q.NO: 74. What does the term Cheilosis mean?

  1. Cracking of lips
  2. Bad breath
  3. Inflammation of the gums
  4. Inflammation of the tongue

 

Correct Answer:  Cracking of lips

 

 

 

Q.NO: 75. Breathing that is normal in rate and depth is called:

  1. Bradypnea
  2. Tachypnea
  3. Apnea
  4. Eupnea

 

Correct Answer:  Eupnea

 

 

Q.NO: 76. Stiffness in the body that occurs after 2 to 4 hours after death is called:

  1. Livor mortis
  2. Algor mortis
  3. Stiff mortis
  4. Rigor mortis

 

Correct Answer:  Rigor mortis

 

 

 

Q.NO: 77. Which of the following is NOT an example of dry cold application?

  1. Cold compress
  2. Ice pack
  3. Ice cradle
  4. Ice bag

 

Correct Answer:  Cold compress

 

 

Q.NO: 78. The main intracellular cation is:

  1. Zinc
  2. Chloride
  3. Potassium
  4. Halide

 

 

Correct Answer:  Potassium

 

 

Q.NO: 79. Inflammation of the oral mucosa is known as:

  1. Gingivitis
  2. Glossitis
  3. Parotitis
  4. Stomatitis

 

Correct Answer:  Stomatitis

 

 

Q.NO: 80. Which of the following medication orders is administered immediately and only once?

  1. Single order
  2. PRN order
  3. Stat order
  4. Standing order

 

Correct Answer:  Stat order

 

Q.NO: 81. Koplik’s spots are the clinical feature of:

  1. Cholera
  2. Chickenpox
  3. Measles
  4. Pertussis

 

Correct Answer:  Measles

 

 Q.NO: 82. One CHC covers a population of ______________ in hilly areas.

  1. 80000
  2. 10000
  3. 30000
  4. 50000

 

Correct Answer:  80000

 

 

Q.NO: 83. The number of all current cases of a disease at one point of time is called:

  1. Period prevalence
  2. Point incidence
  3. Point prevalence
  4. Time prevalence

 

Correct Answer: A point prevalence

 

 

Q.NO: 84. In which year was the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) introduced?

  1. 2006
  2. 2008
  3. 2007
  4. 2005

 

Correct Answer: 2008  

 

 

Q.NO: 85. The hardness of water is expressed as:

  1. PPL
  2. mg/L
  3. mEq/ML
  4. mg%

 

Correct Answer: mg/L

 

 

Q.NO: 86. The route of administration of the hepatitis B vaccine is:

  1. Intramuscular
  2. Subcutaneous
  3. Intrathecal
  4. Intradermal

 

Correct Answer:  Intramuscular

 

 

Q.NO: 87. The constant presence of a disease or infection within a given geographic area is called:

  1. Sporadic
  2. Endemic
  3. Pandemic
  4. Epidemic

 

Correct Answer: Endemic

 

 

Q.NO: 88. The denominator used to calculate the crude birth rate is:

  1. School-going population
  2. Live births in that year
  3. Mid-year population in that year
  4. Population aged 18 years or above

 

Correct Answer: Mid-year population in that year

 

 

Q.NO: 89. What was the theme of World Health Day 2019?

  1. Halt the rise: beat diabetes
  2. Healthy heartbeat: healthy blood pressure
  3. Food safety
  4. Universal health coverage: everyone, everywhere.

 

Correct Answer:  Universal health coverage: everyone, everywhere.

 

 

Q.NO: 90. What is the minimum contact time required for the chlorination of water to take place?

  1. 10 minutes
  2. 90 minutes
  3. 60 minutes
  4. 30 minutes

 

Correct Answer:  30 minutes

 

 

Q.NO: 91. Which of the following digestive enzymes present in gastric juice is primarily responsible for breaking down proteins?

  1. Trypsin
  2. Pepsin
  3. Peptidases
  4. Chymotrypsin

 

Correct Answer:  Pepsin

 

Q.NO: 92. Emulsification of lipids in the small intestine requires:

  1. Gastric lipase
  2. Pepsin
  3. Pancreatic lipase
  4. Bile salts

 

Correct Answer: Bile salts

 

Q.NO: 93. Which of the following nutrients provides energy to the body?

  1. Fat
  2. Zinc
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin D

 

Correct Answer:  Fat

 

 

Q.NO: 94. Which of the following is the precursor to vitamin A?

  1. Pyridoxine
  2. Beta-carotene
  3. Thiamine
  4. Retinol

 

Correct Answer:  Beta-carotene

 

 

Q.NO: 95. An average healthy person with no diseases should ideally get ___________ of his/her daily calorie requirements from healthy fats.

  1. 50% to 60%
  2. 70% to 80%
  3. 20% to 30%
  4. 5% to 10%

 

Correct Answer:  20% to 30%

 

 

Q.NO: 96. In which organ does the absorption of iron take place?

  1. Colon
  2. Duodenum in the small intestine
  3. Liver
  4. Stomach

Correct Answer: Duodenum in the small intestine

 

 

Q.NO: 97. Vitamin B1 is also known as:

  1. Pyridoxine
  2. Thiamine
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Niacin

 

Correct Answer:  Thiamine

 

 

Q.NO: 98. Which of the following trace elements is essential for the synthesis of insulin?

  1. Cobalt
  2. Iron
  3. Zinc
  4. Sodium

 

Correct Answer:  Zinc

 

Q.NO: 99. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

  1. Niacin
  2. Thiamine
  3. Pyridoxine
  4. Valine

 

Correct Answer:  Valine

 

Q.NO: 100. Calories generated per gram of fat is approximate.

  1. 4 Kcals
  2. 15 Kcals
  3. 1 Kcals
  4. 9 Kcals

 

Correct Answer:  9 Kcals

 

Q.NO: 101. Which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?

  1. Ranitidine
  2. Famotidine
  3. Pantoprazole
  4. Sucralfate

 

Correct Answer:  Pantoprazole

 

Q.NO: 102. Diabetes insipidus is caused by the deficiency of which of the following hormones?

  1. Antidiuretic
  2. Glucagon
  3. Insulin
  4. Renin

 

Correct Answer:  Antidiuretic

 

 

Q.NO: 103. The name of the surgery in which there is the removal of duodenum, head of pancreas, gallbladder and bile ducts is called:

  1. Appendectomy
  2. Lumpectomy
  3. Discectomy
  4. Pancreatoduodenectomy

 

Correct Answer:  Pancreatoduodenectomy

 

Q.NO: 104. Bell’s Palsy is a disorder of the ____________ cranial nerve.

  1. 3rd
  2. 7th
  3. 9th
  4. 5th

 

Correct Answer:  7th

 

Q.NO: 105. The most common side effect of thrombolytic therapy is:

  1. Metabolic abnormalities
  2. Internal bleeding
  3. Compartment syndrome
  4. Acute renal failure

 

Correct Answer:  Internal bleeding

 

 

Q.NO: 106. Which type of solution causes water to shift from the cells into the plasma?

  1. Alkaline
  2. Hypotonic
  3. Acidic
  4. Hypertonic

 

Correct Answer:  Hypertonic

 

Q.NO: 107. An individual with which of the following blood groups is a universal donor?

  1. A -ve
  2. B +ve
  3. AB +ve
  4. O-ve

 

Correct Answer:  O-ve

 

 

Q.NO: 108. The loss of urine resulting from cognitive or environmental factors is the manifestation of:

  1. Overflow incontinence
  2. Functional incontinence
  3. Urge incontinence
  4. Reflex incontinence

 

 

Correct Answer:  Functional incontinence

 

 

Q.NO: 109. While assessing the level of consciousness of a patient using the Glasgow Coma Scale, which of the following score represents the best motor response from the patient?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

 

Correct Answer: 6  

 

Q.NO: 110. The loss of ability to recognize objects is called:

  1. Dysarthria
  2. Alexia
  3. Ataxia
  4. Agnosia

 

Correct Answer: Agnosia

 

Q.NO: 111. Which of the following is glandular tissue cancer?

  1. Liposarcoma
  2. Adenocarcinoma
  3. Neuroblastoma
  4. Osteogenic sarcoma

 

Correct Answer:  Adenocarcinoma

 

Q.NO: 112. The cell-mediated immunity is carried out by:

  1. Red blood cells
  2. T lymphocytes
  3. B lymphocytes
  4. CD4 cells

 

Correct Answer: T lymphocytes

 

 

Q.NO: 113. The lateral S-shaped curvature of the spine is called:

  1. Scoliosis
  2. Musculosis
  3. Kyphosis
  4. Lordosis

 

 

Correct Answer:  Scoliosis

 

 

Q.NO: 114. _______________ is a radiological examination using a minimal and safe amount of radiation to allow visualization of breast masses.

  1. Computed tomography scan
  2. Lymphangiogram
  3. Angiogram
  4. Mammogram

 

 

Correct Answer:  Mammogram

 

Q.NO: 115. A barium enema is used mainly for radiological examination of the:

  1. Brain
  2. Colon
  3. Heart
  4. Oral cavity

 

Correct Answer: Colon

 

Q.NO: 116. While doing colostomy irrigation, the height of the irrigation bag should be around:

  1. 18 inches
  2. 24 inches
  3. 12 inches
  4. 36 inches

 

Correct Answer:  18 inches

 

 

Q.NO: 117. Which one of the following procedures is used to correct otosclerosis?

  1. Myringoplasty
  2. Myringotomy
  3. Mastoidectomy
  4. Stapedectomy

 

 

Correct Answer:  Stapedectomy

 

 

Q.NO: 118. The term pyrosis is related to:

  1. Heartburn
  2. Pus formation
  3. Dysphagia
  4. Dyspepsia

 

Correct Answer:  Heartburn

 

 

Q.NO: 119. The drugs used to constrict the pupils are:

  1. Mydriatics
  2. Sulphonamides
  3. Antibiotics
  4. Miotics

 

Correct Answer:  Miotics

 

 

 

Q.NO: 120. Which of the following parts of an eye alters the size of the pupil to regulate the amount of light entering the eye?

  1. Lens
  2. Cornea
  3. Retina
  4. Iris

 

Correct Answer:  Iris

 

 

Q.NO: 121. The type of incontinence in which there is constant dribbling of urine and is associated with urinating frequently and in small amounts is called:

  1. Overflow incontinence
  2. Stress incontinence
  3. Functional incontinence
  4. Urge incontinence

 

Correct Answer:  Overflow incontinence

 

 

Q.NO: 122. Using the ‘rule of nine’, the estimated burn size in an adult having burn injury to the chest and stomach is _____________ percent.

  1. 18
  2. 27
  3. 36
  4. 9

 

Correct Answer:  18

 

 

Q.NO: 123. Which among the following is a colloid solution?

  1. 0.9% normal saline
  2. Dextran
  3. 0.45% normal saline
  4. 25% dextrose

 

Correct Answer: Dextran

 

Q.NO: 124. Which of the following results from severe allergic reaction producing overwhelming systemic vasodilation and relative hypovolemia?

  1. Hypovolemia shock
  2. Anaphylactic shock
  3. Neurogenic shock
  4. Septic shock

 

Correct Answer:  Anaphylactic shock

 

 Q.NO: 125. Which of the following enzymes converts fats into fatty acids and glycerol?

  1. Bile
  2. Trypsinogen
  3. Salivary amylase
  4. Lipase

 

Correct Answer:  Lipase

 

 

Q.NO: 126. The movement of particles from region of higher concentration to region of lower concentration is called:

  1. Diffusion
  2. Filtration
  3. Osmosis
  4. Hydrolysis

 

Correct Answer:  Diffusion

 

 

 

Q.NO: 127. In acute pancreatitis, the levels of which of the following enzymes remain elevated for 7-14 days?

  1. Urine amylase
  2. Serum amylase
  3. Serum alkaline phosphatase
  4. Serum lipase

 

Correct Answer:  Serum lipase

 

 

Q.NO: 128. Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of interstitial cystitis (IC)?

  1. Frequency
  2. Incontinence
  3. Urgency
  4. Pelvis pain

 

Correct Answer:  Incontinence

 

 

Q.NO: 129. The disease that occurs due to the defect in the genes of one or other parent and is transmitted to the offspring is known as _____________ disease/disorder.

  1. Congenital
  2. Organic
  3. Hereditary
  4. Allergic

 

Correct Answer:  Hereditary

 

Q.NO: 130. Tonometry is the method of measuring the:

  1. The pressure inside the lungs
  2. The pressure inside the ear
  3. Intraocular pressure
  4. Blood pressure

 

Correct Answer:  Intraocular pressure

 

Q.NO: 131. Haemophilia is associated with:

  1. Chromosome 11
  2. Y chromosome
  3. Chromosome 21
  4. X chromosome

 

Correct Answer:  X chromosome

 

 

Q.NO: 132. After a renal transplant, the rejection that occurs within minutes is called:

  1. Hyperacute rejection
  2. Chronic rejection
  3. Acute rejection
  4. Sub-acute rejection

 

Correct Answer:  Hyperacute rejection

 

 

Q.NO: 133. Which of the following drugs is used for the dilation of pupil?

  1. Tropicamide
  2. Betamethasone
  3. Levofloxacin
  4. Gentamicin

 

Correct Answer:  Tropicamide

 

Q.NO: 134. What is the minimum possible score on the Glasgow Coma Scale?

  1. 3
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 0

 

Correct Answer:  3

 

 

Q.NO: 135. The voice box is known as:

  1. Larynx
  2. Diaphragm
  3. Bronchioles
  4. d Pharynx

 

Correct Answer:  Larynx

 

Q.NO: 136. The most serious complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a blockage known as__________

  1. Formation of venous ulcers
  2. Chronic occlusion of veins
  3. Gangrenous development of veins
  4. Pulmonary embolism

 

Correct Answer:  Pulmonary embolism

 

Q.NO: 137. Painful swallowing is known as:

  1. Dysphasia
  2. Odynophagia
  3. Ataxia
  4. Dyspepsia

 

Correct Answer:  Odynophagia

 

Q.NO: 138. The antidote of warfarin is:

  1. Protamine sulfate
  2. Vitamin K
  3. Heparin
  4. Acetylcysteine

 

Correct Answer: Vitamin K

 

Q.NO: 139. The most common lung cancer seen in non-smokers is:

  1. Small cell carcinoma
  2. Adenocarcinoma
  3. Large cell carcinoma
  4. Squamous cell carcinoma

 

Correct Answer:  Adenocarcinoma

 

 

Q.NO: 140. The presence of stones in the urinary tract is called:

  1. Kidney lithiasis
  2. Stone lithiasis
  3. Urolithiasis
  4. Cholelithiasis

 

Correct Answer:  Urolithiasis

 

Q.NO: 141. The act of purging or purification of emotions is called.

  1. Compulsion
  2. Catharsis
  3. Cataplexy
  4. Confabulation

 

Correct Answer:  Catharsis

 

 

Q.NO: 142. Which of the following is expected in a patient who is diagnosed with an organic mental disorder?

  1. Intact memory
  2. Appropriate behavior
  3. Disorganization of thoughts
  4. Orientation to person, place, and time

 

Correct Answer:  Disorganization of thoughts

 

 

Q.NO: 143. According to Erikson’s eight stages of development, initiative vs. guilt takes place at:

  1. 20-25 years
  2. 10-15 years
  3. 13–19 years
  4. 3-5 years

 

Correct Answer: 3-5 years 

 

 

Q.NO: 144. Which of the following is NOT a sign/symptom of obsessive-compulsive disorder?

  1. No fear of self-harm
  2. Fear of germs or dirt
  3. Obsessive thoughts
  4. compulsive acts

 

Correct Answer:  No fear of self-harm

 

 

Q.NO: 145. Which one of the following is derived from the plant ‘Cannabis Sativa’?

  1. Cocaine
  2. Morphine
  3. Ganja
  4. Opium

 

Correct Answer:  Ganja

 

Q.NO: 146. False sensory perception without real external stimulus is known as:

  1. Hallucination
  2. Illusions
  3. Delusions
  4. Thought insertion

 

Correct Answer:  Hallucination

 

 

Q.NO: 147. A patient admitted to the psychiatric ward refused to eat her lunch stating that the food is poisoned. This kind of response is an example of:

  1. Hallucination
  2. Sympathy
  3. Illusions
  4. Delusions

 

Correct Answer: Delusions

 

 

Q.NO: 148. The La Belle indifference is related to:

  1. Conversion reaction
  2. Obsession compulsions disorder
  3. Anxiety disorder
  4. Phobic anxiety

 

Correct Answer:  Conversion reaction

 

Q.NO: 149. The disulfiram therapy is indicated in:

  1. Acute intoxication
  2. Cannabis dependence
  3. Anxiety disorder
  4. Chronic alcoholism

 

Correct Answer:  Chronic alcoholism

Q.NO: 150. A person suffering from _____________, a severe anxiety disorder, is able to speak freely with certain people only and is not able to speak with others, especially with certain social groups such as classmates at school.

  1. Mutism
  2. Aphasia
  3. Selective mutism 
  4. Epilepsy

 

Correct Answer:  Selective mutism 

 

Q.NO: 151. Ovulation in a female with a 36 days cycle occurs between:

  1. 30th – 34th day
  2. 14th – 18th day
  3. 8th – 12th day
  4. 20th – 24th day

 

Correct Answer: 20th – 24th day

 

 

 

Q.NO: 152. The condition where the uterus turns inside out is called:

  1. Uterine Inversion
  2. Prolapse
  3. Anteversion
  4. Retroversion

 

Correct Answer:  Uterine Inversion

 

 

Q.NO: 153. The graphical record of maternal and fetal data against time during labor on a single sheet of paper is called:

  1. Ultrasonogram
  2. Tocogram
  3. Cardiotocogram
  4. Partogram

 

Correct Answer:  Partogram

 

 

Q.NO: 154. The most common genital prolapse is:

  1. Rectocele
  2. Cystocele
  3. Procidentia
  4. Enterocele

 

Correct Answer:  Cystocele

 

 

Q.NO: 155. The first stage of labor is characterized by:

  1. Crowning of the head
  2. Expulsion of the fetus to the placenta
  3. Dilatation of cervix
  4. Delivery of the placenta

 

Correct Answer:  Dilatation of the cervix

 

Q.NO: 156. The length of the fallopian tube ranges from:

  1. 22-27 cm
  2. 7-12 cm
  3. 28-31 cm
  4. 2-7 cm

 

Correct Answer:  7-12 cm

 

Q.NO: 157. The shape of the brim in the anthropoid pelvis is:

  1. Triangular with base towards the sacrum
  2. Square
  3. Well-rounded
  4. Oval

 

Correct Answer:  Oval

 

 

Q.NO: 158. The suture that separates the parietal bone from the tabular portion of the occipital bone is called:

  1. Lambdoid suture
  2. Frontal suture
  3. Sagittal suture
  4. Coronal suture

 

Correct Answer:  Lambdoid suture

 

Q.NO: 159. Urine formation usually begins towards the end of the _______ and continues throughout fetal life.

  1. 3-5 weeks
  2. 2-3 weeks
  3. 21-22 weeks
  4. 11-12 weeks

 

Correct Answer:  11-12 weeks

 

Q.NO: 160. The settling of the fetal head into the brim of the pelvis is called:

  1. Crowning of head
  2. Lightening
  3. Engagement
  4. Descent

 

Correct Answer: Lightening

 

 

Q.NO: 161. Which of the following is the common site of fertilization?

  1. Interstitial
  2. Isthmic
  3. Ampulla
  4. Infundibulum.

 

Correct Answer:  Ampulla

 

 

Q.NO: 162. At about __________ of gestation, the height of the uterus is at the level of the umbilicus.

  1. 6-8 weeks
  2. 3-5 weeks
  3. 20-22 weeks
  4. 10-12 weeks

 

 

Correct Answer:  20-22 weeks

 

 

Q.NO: 163. The ovarian cycle is initiated by:

  1. Progesterone
  2. Follicle stimulating hormone
  3. Endorphins
  4. Estrogen

 

Correct Answer:  Follicle stimulating hormone

 

 

Q.NO: 164. The most common cause of non-engagement at term in primigravida is:

  1. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)
  2. Breech presentation
  3. Hydramnios
  4. Brow presentation

 

Correct Answer:  Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)

 

Q.NO: 165. What is the correct sequence of mitosis?

  1. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
  2. Anaphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase
  3. Telophase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
  4. Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase

 

Correct Answer:  Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

 

Q.NO: 166. The uterine fibroid is associated with:

  1. Endometriosis
  2. Amenorrhea
  3. Ovarian cancer
  4. PID

 

Correct Answer:  Endometriosis

 

 

 

Q.NO: 167. Inflammation of the fallopian tube is called:

  1. Endometritis
  2. Vaginitis
  3. Salpingitis
  4. Cervicitis

 

Correct Answer:  Salpingitis

 

 

Q.NO: 168. The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is:

  1. Ampullary region in the fallopian tube
  2. Cervix
  3. Abdomen
  4. Ovary

 

Correct Answer:  Ampullary region in the fallopian tube

 

 

Q.NO: 169. The darkening of the skin over the forehead, bridge of the nose, or cheekbones during pregnancy is called:

  1. Chloasma
  2. Chadwick’s sign
  3. Hegar’s sign
  4. Linea nigra

 

Correct Answer:  Chloasma

 

 

Q.NO: 170. The approximate average weight of the placenta at birth is:

  1. 300 g
  2. 400 g
  3. 508 g
  4. 600 g

 

Correct Answer:  508 g

 

 

Q.NO: 171. Which of the following hormones is increased in Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome?

  1. 17-OH progesterone
  2. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
  3. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
  4. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

 

Correct Answer:  Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

 

 

Q.NO: 172. The early puerperium extends:

  1. Until twelve weeks of postpartum
  2. Up to the first year of delivery
  3. Until the thirteen weeks of postpartum
  4. Until the first week of postpartum

 

 

Correct Answer:  Until the first week of postpartum

 

 

Q.NO: 173. Which one of the following is seen in preeclampsia?

  1. Facial hair
  2. Hypotension
  3. Weight loss
  4. Proteinuria

 

Correct Answer:  Proteinuria

 

 

Q.NO: 174. A normal umbilical cord contains:

  1. One artery and five veins
  2. Two arteries and one vein
  3. Five arteries and two veins
  4. Two arteries and ten veins

 

Correct Answer:  Two arteries and one vein

 

 

Q.NO: 175. Oxygenated blood from placenta returns to the fetus via the ____________ .

  1. Superior vena cava
  2. Inferior vena cava
  3. Umbilical vein
  4. Ductus arteriosus

 

Correct Answer:  Umbilical vein

 

 

Q.NO: 176. Post-term pregnancy is a pregnancy that continues beyond:

  1. 294 days
  2. 250 days
  3. 200 days
  4. 170 days

 

Correct Answer:  294 days

 

 

Q.NO: 177. What is the ideal average newborn’s head circumference at birth?

  1. 75 cm
  2. 35 cm
  3. 55 cm
  4. 15 cm

 

Correct Answer: 35 cm

 

 

Q.NO: 178. Which of the following indicates the relationship of the long axis of the fetus to that mother?

  1. Fetal lie
  2. Fetal presentation
  3. Fetal attitude
  4. Fetal position

 

Correct Answer:  Fetal lie

 

 

Q.NO: 179. The outermost membrane of the placenta is called:

  1. Yolk sac
  2. Chorion
  3. Amnion
  4. Meningitis

 

Correct Answer:  Chorion

 

 

Q.NO: 180. Peg cells are seen in the:

  1. Intestine
  2. Fallopian tubes
  3. Stomach
  4. Vagina

 

Correct Answer:  Fallopian tubes

 

Q.NO: 181. Which of the following is the most important tumor marker to diagnose carcinoma of the ovary?

  1. Serum human chorionic gonadotropin
  2. CA 125
  3. Human placental lactogen
  4. Serum alpha fetoprotein

 

 

Correct Answer:  CA 125

 

 

Q.NO: 182. The onset of menstruation is called:

  1. Menopause
  2. Menarche
  3. Andropause
  4. Ovarian cycle

 

Correct Answer:  Menarche

 

Q.NO: 183. 6-7 million oocytes are available, how many are released during ovulation?

  1. 3000 to 4000
  2. 400 to 500
  3. 2000 to 3000
  4. 100 to 200

 

Correct Answer: 400 to 500  

 

 

Q.NO: 184. During the active phase of labor, the cervical dilatation per hour in primigravidas is approximate:

  1. 1.2 cm
  2. 1.9 cm
  3. 2.3 cm
  4. 2.5 cm

 

Correct Answer:  1.2 cm

 

Q.NO: 185. The correct sequence of development of puberty in girls is:

  1. Menarche, Pubarche, Thelarche
  2. Thelarche, Pubarche, Menarche,
  3. Thelarche, Menarche, Pubarche
  4. Pubarche, Menarche, Thelarche

 

Correct Answer:  Thelarche, Pubarche, Menarche,

 

 Q.NO: 186. Postpartum hemorrhage is the condition in which there is loss of more than _________ mL vaginal blood.

  1. 100
  2. 50
  3. 10
  4. 500

 

Correct Answer:  500

 

 

Q.NO: 187. The normal APGAR score of a new born is:

  1. 7 and above
  2. 3 to 4
  3. 4 to 6
  4. Below 3

 

Correct Answer:  7 and above

 

Q.NO: 188. Which of the following is NOT a feature of HELLP syndrome?

  1. Raised liver enzymes
  2. Eosinophilia
  3. Thrombocytopenia
  4. Hemolytic anemia

 

Correct Answer:  Eosinophilia

 

 

Q.NO: 189. The first perception of active fetal movement felt by the mother during pregnancy is known as:

  1. Engagement
  2. Hastening
  3. Quickening
  4. Lightening

 

Correct Answer: Quickening

 

 

Q.NO: 190. The maneuver commonly used to manage shoulder dystocia is:

  1. Rosette maneuver
  2. McRoberts maneuver
  3. Jeff Marshal maneuver
  4. MacMillan maneuver

 

Correct Answer:  McRoberts maneuver

 

 

Q.NO: 191. Which of the following is the most common cause of ophthalmic neonatorum?

  1. Candida albicans
  2. Staphylococcus aureus
  3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  4. Streptococcus

 

Correct Answer:  Neisseria gonorrhoeae

 

 

Q.NO: 192. Which of the following is NOT a part of the Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

  1. Patent ductus arteriosus
  2. Right ventricular hypertrophy
  3. Overriding of aorta
  4. Pulmonary stenosis

 

Correct Answer:  Patent ductus arteriosus

 

 

Q.NO: 193. An injury to the upper brachial plexus results in:

  1. Facial palsy
  2. Phrenic nerve palsy
  3. Klumpke’s palsy
  4. Erb’s palsy

 

Correct Answer:  Erb’s palsy

 

 

Q.NO: 194. Which of the following is the ideal age for closure of the anterior fontanel of a child?

  1. 18 to 24 months
  2. 6 to 8 months
  3. 6 to 8 weeks
  4. 18 to 24 weeks

 

Correct Answer: 18 to 24 months

 

 

Q.NO: 195. Which of the following is NOT a complication of measles?

  1. Laryngitis
  2. Conjunctivitis
  3. Atrial Septal Defect
  4. Encephalitis

 

Correct Answer:  Atrial Septal Defect

 

 

Q.NO: 196. The most common type of leukemia seen in children is:

  1. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
  2. Chronic lymphoid leukemia (CHL)
  3. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
  4. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

 

Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)   

 

 

Q.NO: 197. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?

  1. Inattention
  2. Impulsivity
  3. Difficulty in eating.
  4. Overactivity

 

Correct Answer:  Difficulty in eating.

 

 

Q.NO: 198. Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of Trisomy 21?

  1. Flat nasal bridge
  2. Protruding tongue
  3. Long hands and fingers
  4. Small nose

 

Correct Answer:  Long hands and fingers

 

 

Q.NO: 199. Which of the following conditions can result in a hairy patch on the back of children?

  1. Epilepsy
  2. Hydrocephalus
  3. Spina bifida occulta
  4. Ricket

 

Correct Answer:  Spina bifida occulta

 

 

Q.NO: 200. The Baby-friendly Hospital Initiative (BFHI) was launched jointly by:

  1. WHO and Red Cross
  2. WHO and FAO
  3. UNICEF and WHO
  4. UNICEF and FAO

 

Correct Answer:  UNICEF and WHO

 

Professional Examination Board, Bhopal Group-05 Staff Nurse Recruitment Test -2020 (Re-Exam for “K” Paper) Shift – 1st Answer Key Download

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