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Professional Examination Board, Bhopal
Group-05 (Staff Nurse) Recruitment Test -2021 (Re-Exam for “K” Paper)
Shift – 1
AIIMS Patna Nursing Officer Question paper Answer Key 2020
Q.NO: 1. The apex of the heart is formed mostly by the:
Correct Answer: Left ventricle
Q.NO: 2. Which of the following is the largest cranial nerve?
Correct Answer: Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)
Q.NO: 3. Tarsals of the ankles are examples of which type of bone?
Correct Answer: Short bones
Q.NO: 4. How many bones are there in the lower extremities in a normal adult?
Correct Answer: 62
Q.NO: 5. What is the approximate maximum air volume in the lung for normal healthy adult?
Correct Answer: 6000 mL
Q.NO: 6. Carpometacarpal joint is an example of which of the following types of joints?
Correct Answer: Saddle
Q.NO: 7. Which of the following layers of the adrenal gland secretes glucocorticoids?
Correct Answer: Zona fasciculate
Q.NO: 8. Which of the following is an example of ball-and-socket joints?
Correct Answer: Hip joint
Q.NO: 9. What is the synonym of Clotting Factor II?
Correct Answer: Prothrombin
Q.NO: 10. Which of the following quadriceps femoris muscles help in flexion of the thigh?
Correct Answer: Rectus femoris
Q.NO: 11. Which of the following parts of the brain controls body temperature?
Correct Answer: Hypothalamus
Q.NO: 12. How many pairs of cervical nerves are there in the spinal cord?
Correct Answer: 8
Q.NO: 13. The elbow is an example of a _ joint.
Correct Answer: Hinge.
Q.NO: 14. The expanded ends of a long bone are called:
Correct Answer: Epiphyses
Q.NO: 15. The posterior pituitary consists mainly of__________.
Correct Answer: Neuronal projections
Q.NO: 16. Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted from the anterior pituitary?
Correct Answer: Oxytocin
Q.NO: 17. A_______________ is a cell that manufactures and stores the protein keratin.
Correct Answer: Keratinocyte
Q.NO: 18. Which of the following is an example of synarthrosis joint?
Correct Answer: Fibrous joints of the skull sutures
Q.NO: 19. Which of the following hormones inhibits release of growth hormone?
Correct Answer: Somatostatin
Q.NO: 20. Oxytocin is mainly involved in which of the following functions?
Correct Answer: Childbirth and lactation
Q.NO: 21. Which of the following is NOT related to MMR vaccine?
Correct Answer: Rickets
Q.NO: 22. Who among the following devised the autoclave used for sterilization?
Correct Answer: Charles Chamberland
Q.NO: 23. Widal, a serological test, is used to detect the presence of which of the following pathogenic microorganisms?
Correct Answer: Salmonella typhi
Q.NO: 24. The causative agent of Lyme disease is:
Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi
Q.NO: 25. Which of the following microorganisms causes gonorrhea?
Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q.NO: 26. What is the optimum temperature in an autoclave to achieve sterility?
Correct Answer: 121°C for 30 minutes
Q.NO: 27. Which of the following involves the introduction of antibodies into the body from an animal or person already immune to the disease?
Correct Answer: Artificially acquired passive immunity
Q.NO: 28. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by:
Correct Answer: IgE
Q.NO: 29. Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
Correct Answer: Bacillus
Q.NO: 30. Which of the following is true about IgM?
Correct Answer: It forms the initial immune response.
Q.NO: 31. As per 2011 census survey,_______________ per cent of the population of India suffer from disability (in the identified 8 categories).
Correct Answer: 2.21
Q.NO: 32. Who is considered as the father of sociology?
Correct Answer: Auguste Comte
Q.NO: 33. Which of the following is NOT a stage of socialization?
Correct Answer: Despair stage
Q.NO: 34. Caste status is an example of which of the following status?
Correct Answer: Ascribed
Q.NO: 35. The general process of acquiring culture is referred to as:
Correct Answer: Socialization
Q.NO: 36. Socialization is a process involving:
Correct Answer: Inducting people to adapt in society
Q.NO: 37. Who said that man is a social animal?
Correct Answer: Aristotle
Q.NO: 38. Any small group marked by continuous close interaction of a highly personal and emotionally supportive nature is called a/an_ group.
Correct Answer: Primary
Q.NO: 39. Polyandry me:
Correct Answer: A form of marriage that joins one female with more than one male.
Q.NO: 40. Providing education to the school, college and street children on prevention of drug addiction is an example of _______________ prevention.
Correct Answer: Primordial
Q.NO: 41. Lack of oxygen in the blood stream is called:
Correct Answer: Hypoxemia
Q.NO: 42. Under normal circumstances, concentration of oxygen in inspired air is about _________per cent.
Correct Answer: 21
Q.NO: 43. As per Kübler-Ross stages of grieving, refusing to believe that loss is happening/has happened is called:
Correct Answer: Denial
Q.NO: 44. Which of the following organ is one of the primary regulator of body fluid and electrolyte balance?
Correct Answer: Kidney
Q.NO: 45. What is the approximate normal level of haematocrit/packed cell volume in men?
Correct Answer: 40% to 50%
Q.NO: 46. Which of the following tests need to be performed before radial artery cannulation to evaluate radial and ulnar arterial patency?
Correct Answer: Allen’s test
Q.NO: 47. A group of symptoms is known as:
Correct Answer: Syndrome
Q.NO: 48. Rhythmic waxing and waning of respiration is called:
Correct Answer: Cheyne-Stokes respiration
Q.NO: 49. A bedridden patient is having intact skin at the sacral region, and the symptoms of warmness, pain and firm skin at the site. What is the stage of bedsore?
Correct Answer: Stage I
Q.NO: 50. Following death, the subjective response experienced by the surviving loved ones is called:
Correct Answer: Bereavement
Q.NO: 51. Which of the following electrolytes does insulin help to move into the cells?
Correct Answer: Bicarbonates
Q.NO: 52. Temperature of 98.7 degree Fahrenheit is approximately equal to ________ degree Celsius.
Correct Answer: 37.06
Q.NO: 53. Difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure is called:
Correct Answer: Pulse pressure
Q.NO: 54. Formula to calculate BMI is:
Correct Answer: Weight in kg divided by square of height in meters.
Q.NO: 55. Which of the following equipment is used for the examination of the ear?
Correct Answer: Otoscope
Q.NO: 56. The specific gravity of the urine normally ranges approximately from:
Correct Answer: 1.01 to 1.025
Q.NO: 57. Insertion of a tube inside the stomach through the nose is called nasogastric________.
Correct Answer: Intubation
Q.NO: 58. Intravenous solution of 0.45% sodium chloride is a/an __________ solution.
Correct Answer: Hypotonic
Q.NO: 59. _____________ is the process of introducing a disinfectant solution to the internal environment of the body when someone pass away.
Correct Answer: Embalming
Q.NO: 60. _____________ Enema is also called antispasmodic enema.
Correct Answer: Carminative
Q.NO: 61. HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) value reflects the blood glucose levels in the past months.
Correct Answer: 3
Q.NO: 62. The sudden fall of temperature from high to normal within a few hours is called:
Correct Answer: True crisis
Q.NO: 63. In a healthy individual, weighing 70 kg at rest, the stroke volume is about:
Correct Answer: 70 mL
Q.NO: 64. A fever in which temperature remains above normal throughout the day and fluctuate more than 2 degrees Fahrenheit is known as __________fever.
Correct Answer: Remittent
Q.NO: 65. The site of pulse in the neck is called:
Correct Answer: Carotid
Q.NO: 66. The gradual decrease in body’s temperature after death is called:
Correct Answer: Algor mortis
Q.NO: 67. The discoloration that appears in the dependent areas of the body after death is called:
Correct Answer: Livor mortis
Q.NO: 68. Kussmaul breathing is associated with:
Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Q.NO: 69. Absorptive dressings are intended to:
Correct Answer: Remove drainage from the bedsore
Q.NO: 70. Which of the following medication orders are for every other day?
Correct Answer: qod
Q.NO: 71. A patient is to receive 1000 mL of IV fluid in 6 hours. The drop factor is 15 drops per mL. At approximately how many drops per minute should the flow rate be set?
Correct Answer: 42 drops/min
Q.NO: 72. In which of the following positions is the patient at greatest risk of shearing force?
Correct Answer: High-Fowler’s position
Q.NO: 73. Movement of the joints away from the mid-line of the body is called:
Correct Answer: Abduction
Q.NO: 74. What does the term Cheilosis mean?
Correct Answer: Cracking of lips
Q.NO: 75. Breathing that is normal in rate and depth is called:
Correct Answer: Eupnea
Q.NO: 76. Stiffness in the body that occurs after 2 to 4 hours after death is called:
Correct Answer: Rigor mortis
Q.NO: 77. Which of the following is NOT an example of dry cold application?
Correct Answer: Cold compress
Q.NO: 78. The main intracellular cation is:
Correct Answer: Potassium
Q.NO: 79. Inflammation of the oral mucosa is known as:
Correct Answer: Stomatitis
Q.NO: 80. Which of the following medication orders is administered immediately and only once?
Correct Answer: Stat order
Q.NO: 81. Koplik’s spots are the clinical feature of:
Correct Answer: Measles
Q.NO: 82. One CHC covers a population of ______________ in hilly areas.
Correct Answer: 80000
Q.NO: 83. The number of all current cases of a disease at one point of time is called:
Correct Answer: A point prevalence
Q.NO: 84. In which year was the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) introduced?
Correct Answer: 2008
Q.NO: 85. The hardness of water is expressed as:
Correct Answer: mg/L
Q.NO: 86. The route of administration of the hepatitis B vaccine is:
Correct Answer: Intramuscular
Q.NO: 87. The constant presence of a disease or infection within a given geographic area is called:
Correct Answer: Endemic
Q.NO: 88. The denominator used to calculate the crude birth rate is:
Correct Answer: Mid-year population in that year
Q.NO: 89. What was the theme of World Health Day 2019?
Correct Answer: Universal health coverage: everyone, everywhere.
Q.NO: 90. What is the minimum contact time required for the chlorination of water to take place?
Correct Answer: 30 minutes
Q.NO: 91. Which of the following digestive enzymes present in gastric juice is primarily responsible for breaking down proteins?
Correct Answer: Pepsin
Q.NO: 92. Emulsification of lipids in the small intestine requires:
Correct Answer: Bile salts
Q.NO: 93. Which of the following nutrients provides energy to the body?
Correct Answer: Fat
Q.NO: 94. Which of the following is the precursor to vitamin A?
Correct Answer: Beta-carotene
Q.NO: 95. An average healthy person with no diseases should ideally get ___________ of his/her daily calorie requirements from healthy fats.
Correct Answer: 20% to 30%
Q.NO: 96. In which organ does the absorption of iron take place?
Correct Answer: Duodenum in the small intestine
Q.NO: 97. Vitamin B1 is also known as:
Correct Answer: Thiamine
Q.NO: 98. Which of the following trace elements is essential for the synthesis of insulin?
Correct Answer: Zinc
Q.NO: 99. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
Correct Answer: Valine
Q.NO: 100. Calories generated per gram of fat is approximate.
Correct Answer: 9 Kcals
Q.NO: 101. Which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?
Correct Answer: Pantoprazole
Q.NO: 102. Diabetes insipidus is caused by the deficiency of which of the following hormones?
Correct Answer: Antidiuretic
Q.NO: 103. The name of the surgery in which there is the removal of duodenum, head of pancreas, gallbladder and bile ducts is called:
Correct Answer: Pancreatoduodenectomy
Q.NO: 104. Bell’s Palsy is a disorder of the ____________ cranial nerve.
Correct Answer: 7th
Q.NO: 105. The most common side effect of thrombolytic therapy is:
Correct Answer: Internal bleeding
Q.NO: 106. Which type of solution causes water to shift from the cells into the plasma?
Correct Answer: Hypertonic
Q.NO: 107. An individual with which of the following blood groups is a universal donor?
Correct Answer: O-ve
Q.NO: 108. The loss of urine resulting from cognitive or environmental factors is the manifestation of:
Correct Answer: Functional incontinence
Q.NO: 109. While assessing the level of consciousness of a patient using the Glasgow Coma Scale, which of the following score represents the best motor response from the patient?
Correct Answer: 6
Q.NO: 110. The loss of ability to recognize objects is called:
Correct Answer: Agnosia
Q.NO: 111. Which of the following is glandular tissue cancer?
Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma (more…)
PEB Group-05 Staff Nurse Recruitment Test -2021 Answer Key Shift 1 Professional Examination Board, BhopalGroup-05 (Staff Nurse) Recruitment Test -2021 (Re-Exam for "K" Paper) Shift - 1 Correct…